UPSC Civil Services Prelims 24 January Most Probable 100 Questions

1 january 24 practice

Question 1:

Consider the following statements about the Indian Parliament:

1. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in the matter of creating new All-India Services.
2. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The creation of new All-India Services requires a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha with a two-thirds majority. Hence, the Rajya Sabha has equal power with the Lok Sabha in this regard.
2. A Money Bill, as defined in Article 110, can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not in the Rajya Sabha.

Question 2:

Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution:

1. Fundamental Duties were incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
2. They are enforceable by courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
2. Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable by courts.

Question 3:

Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):

1. The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of both the Union and the States.
2. The CAG is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The CAG audits the accounts of both the Union and State Governments and other public authorities.
2. The CAG is appointed by the President of India but does not hold office at the pleasure of the President. The term of office is fixed at 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier, and the CAG can only be removed by impeachment.

Question 4:

Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:

1. The Attorney General has the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament but cannot vote.
2. The Attorney General must be a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Attorney General has the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament and their committees, but they do not have voting rights as they are not a member of Parliament.
2. The Attorney General is not required to be a member of Parliament. The AG must, however, be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Question 5:

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):

1. The Election Commission is a multi-member body.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Election Commission became a multi-member body in 1989, consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners.
2. The CEC can be removed from office in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge: by impeachment through a special majority in Parliament.

Question 6:

Consider the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

1. They are fundamental in the governance of the country but are non-justiciable.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act gave primacy to DPSPs over Fundamental Rights in certain cases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. DPSPs, outlined in Part IV of the Constitution, are guidelines for the state to achieve socio-economic justice and are non-justiciable.
2. The 42nd Amendment stated that if a law is enacted to implement any DPSP, it cannot be declared invalid on the grounds of contravention of Fundamental Rights under Articles 14, 19, or 31.

Question 7:

Consider the following statements about Indian citizenship:

1. The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship.
2. The process of acquiring citizenship by naturalization requires a person to reside in India for at least 5 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. India follows the principle of single citizenship, meaning that all Indians, irrespective of the state or territory they belong to, are citizens of India only.
2. To acquire citizenship by naturalization, a person must have resided in India for 12 years (11 years preceding the application, with 1 year immediately preceding it).

Question 8:

Consider the following statements regarding the President of India:

1. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. The President cannot return a Constitutional Amendment Bill for reconsideration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, and under Article 85, they can dissolve the Lok Sabha upon such advice.
2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill, once passed by both Houses of Parliament, must be assented to by the President. The President has no power to return it for reconsideration.

Question 9:

Consider the following statements about Scheduled Tribes (STs) in India:

1. The criteria for recognition as a Scheduled Tribe is specified in the Constitution.
2. The President has the power to specify Scheduled Tribes in various states and union territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Constitution does not specify the criteria for identifying Scheduled Tribes. Instead, criteria are based on historical, anthropological, and socio-economic factors such as geographical isolation, distinct culture, and economic backwardness.
2. Under Article 342, the President specifies Scheduled Tribes for states and union territories, with subsequent parliamentary approval.

Question 10:

Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:

1. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years.
2. Its recommendations are binding on the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Article 280 of the Constitution mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier as required.
2. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory and not binding on the government.

 

Question 11:

Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):

1. The Constitution has fixed the strength of the members of the UPSC.
2. The members of the UPSC can be removed from office by the President on the ground of misbehavior only after the Supreme Court, on reference, upholds such removal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members in the UPSC; this is determined by the President.
2. A member of the UPSC can be removed by the President for misbehavior, but only after the matter is referred to the Supreme Court and the Court upholds the removal.

Question 12:

Consider the following statements regarding Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs):

1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in all states.
2. The Act makes it mandatory for states to hold elections to Panchayati Raj Institutions every five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The 73rd Amendment provides for a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in all states except those with a population of less than 20 lakhs, where a two-tier system can be implemented.
2. It mandates the holding of elections to PRIs every five years, ensuring continuity in governance.

Question 13:

Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST):

1. GST is a destination-based tax levied on the consumption of goods and services.
2. The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. GST is a destination-based tax where the tax revenue is accrued to the state where the goods or services are consumed.
2. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not the Prime Minister.

Question 14:

Consider the following statements regarding the Environment Protection Act, 1986:

1. It was enacted under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Act empowers the Central Government to take measures for protecting and improving the quality of the environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Environment Protection Act, 1986, was enacted under Article 253, which gives Parliament the power to make laws for implementing international agreements.
2. The Act vests the Central Government with the power to take measures to protect and improve the environment.

Question 15:

Consider the following statements about the National Green Tribunal (NGT):

1. The NGT was established under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. The NGT has both original and appellate jurisdiction on matters of environmental protection and conservation of forests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, not the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. The NGT has both original jurisdiction (to hear cases directly) and appellate jurisdiction (to hear appeals against orders of authorities) on environmental matters.

Question 16:

Consider the following statements about the World Trade Organization (WTO):

1. The WTO was established by the Marrakesh Agreement in 1995.
2. All decisions of the WTO are made by a majority vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The WTO was established on January 1, 1995, by the Marrakesh Agreement, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
2. WTO decisions are typically made by consensus, not by majority vote, though voting can occur in exceptional circumstances.

Question 17:

Consider the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):

1. The NHRC is a constitutional body established under Article 51A of the Constitution.
2. The NHRC cannot investigate matters older than one year from the date of occurrence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, not under the Constitution.
2. The NHRC is barred from investigating complaints relating to events that occurred more than one year before the complaint was made.

 

Question 18:

Consider the following statements regarding the Vice President of India:

1. The Vice President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States.
2. The Vice President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Vice President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. State Legislative Assemblies are not involved.
2. The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 19:

Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog:

1. It was established by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
2. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog includes the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The NITI Aayog was established in 2015 through an executive resolution, replacing the Planning Commission.
2. The Governing Council includes the Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories, but not Chief Ministers of all UTs as some UTs are administered by LGs.

Question 20:

Consider the following statements about the Indian judiciary:

1. The Supreme Court has the power to transfer cases from one High Court to another.
2. The Constitution of India provides for a uniform civil code to be implemented by the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Under Article 139A of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has the authority to transfer cases involving the same or substantially the same questions of law from one High Court to another.
2. The uniform civil code (UCC) is mentioned in the Directive Principles (Article 44) for the state to implement; it is not a function of the judiciary.

Question 21:

Consider the following statements regarding Indian federalism:

1. The Indian Constitution provides for a unitary bias in certain situations.
2. States in India derive their authority directly from the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Indian federalism has a unitary bias, especially during emergencies, where powers of the state legislatures are overridden by the Union government.
2. States derive their authority directly from the Constitution, unlike in a unitary system where they are subordinate to the central government.

Question 22:

Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget:

1. The Union Budget is presented under Article 112 of the Constitution.
2. The Budget cannot be amended by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Article 112 of the Indian Constitution mandates the presentation of the Union Budget, referred to as the “Annual Financial Statement.”
2. The Parliament has the authority to amend or reject budget proposals during the budget session.

Question 23:

Consider the following statements about Fundamental Rights:

1. The Fundamental Rights are absolute in nature.
2. The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. Fundamental Rights are not absolute; they are subject to reasonable restrictions.
2. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights, making it a legal right under Article 300A.

Question 24:

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor of a State in India:

1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state and functions on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. The Governor has discretionary powers in appointing the Chief Minister in case of a hung assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state, and their functions are performed on the advice of the Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the helm.
2. In case of a hung assembly, the Governor exercises discretionary powers in appointing the Chief Minister, usually the leader of the largest party or coalition.

 

Question 25:

Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:

1. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended.
2. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were added to the Preamble by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It was amended once by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, which added the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity.”
2. The 44th Amendment Act dealt with other provisions, not the Preamble.

Question 26:

Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties:

1. Fundamental Duties are incorporated in Part IV of the Constitution.
2. They were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. Fundamental Duties are incorporated in Part IVA, not Part IV, of the Constitution under Article 51A.
2. They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Question 27:

Consider the following statements regarding the Election of the President of India:

1. The President is elected through a system of proportional representation by a single transferable vote.
2. All Members of Parliament and Members of Legislative Assemblies of States participate in the election of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The President is elected through proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
2. Only elected members of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States (including Union Territories with legislatures) participate in the election, not nominated members.

Question 28:

Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

1. The RBI is the sole authority to issue currency in India, except for one-rupee notes and coins.
2. The RBI determines the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) to control money supply in the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The RBI issues currency notes except for one-rupee notes and coins, which are issued by the Ministry of Finance.
2. The RBI uses tools like CRR and SLR to regulate liquidity and control money supply.

Question 29:

Consider the following statements regarding the Scheduled Areas and Tribes:

1. The President is empowered to declare any area as a Scheduled Area.
2. The provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), are applicable to all Scheduled Tribes in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Under the Fifth Schedule, the President has the authority to declare any area as a Scheduled Area and can also modify the existing Scheduled Areas.
2. PESA applies only to the Fifth Schedule Areas, not to all Scheduled Tribes in India.

Question 30:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Parliament:

1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and only on the recommendation of the President.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill but can suggest changes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. A Money Bill, as defined under Article 110, can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha with the President’s recommendation.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill but can recommend changes, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject.

Question 31:

Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST):

1. GST is a single tax levied on goods and services across India, replacing multiple indirect taxes.
2. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes Finance Ministers of all states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. GST has replaced multiple indirect taxes like VAT, excise duty, and service tax, creating a uniform taxation system across India.
2. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, and its members include the Finance Ministers of all states and Union Territories with legislatures.

 

Question 32:

Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights:

1. The Right to Equality includes the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
2. Fundamental Rights are enforceable only against the State and not against private individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Right to Equality, under Article 15, prohibits discrimination on specific grounds, such as religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
2. While most Fundamental Rights are enforceable against the State, certain rights, such as Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability), are enforceable against private individuals as well.

Question 33:

Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):

1. The NCSC is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
2. It is responsible for monitoring the safeguards provided for Scheduled Castes under the Constitution only at the central level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The NCSC is established under Article 338 as a constitutional body to safeguard the rights of Scheduled Castes.
2. It monitors safeguards for Scheduled Castes at both the central and state levels, not just the central level.

Question 34:

Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs):

1. DPSPs are non-justiciable in nature.
2. DPSPs aim to establish social and economic democracy in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. DPSPs, enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced in a court of law.
2. They aim to guide the state in establishing a welfare state and ensuring social and economic democracy.

Question 35:

Consider the following statements about India’s biodiversity:

1. India is one of the 17 megadiverse countries in the world.
2. The Western Ghats is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a biodiversity hotspot.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. India is among the 17 megadiverse countries that together hold the majority of Earth’s biodiversity.
2. The Western Ghats is both a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the four biodiversity hotspots in India.

Question 36:

Consider the following statements regarding Indian federalism:

1. India follows a dual polity system where powers are divided between the Union and the States.
2. The residuary powers are vested in the states under the Indian Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. India follows a dual polity system with distinct powers divided between the Union and the States, as listed in the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
2. Residuary powers (subjects not listed in the Constitution) are vested in the Union under Article 248.

Question 37:

Consider the following statements about the United Nations (UN):

1. The UN General Assembly elects the non-permanent members of the UN Security Council.
2. India has been a permanent member of the UN Security Council since its inception.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The 10 non-permanent members of the UN Security Council are elected by the General Assembly for a two-year term.
2. India is not a permanent member; the five permanent members are the USA, UK, China, Russia, and France.

Question 38:

Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India (ECI):

1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.
2. The ECI is responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The CEC can only be removed through a process similar to the impeachment of a Supreme Court judge, requiring a majority in both Houses of Parliament.
2. The ECI conducts elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice President under its constitutional mandate.

 

Question 39:

Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission of India:

1. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
2. It recommends the distribution of tax revenue between the Union and the States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280, appointed by the President every five years or as needed.
2. It recommends the sharing of tax revenues between the Union and the States and among the States themselves.

Question 40:

Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

1. The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.
2. The Attorney General is a member of the Union Cabinet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India, appointed by the President under Article 76.
2. The Attorney General is not a member of the Union Cabinet but has the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings without voting rights.

Question 41:

Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha:

1. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
2. One-third of its members retire every two years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body, meaning it is not subject to dissolution like the Lok Sabha.
2. One-third of its members retire every two years, ensuring continuity.

Question 42:

Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights and Emergency Provisions:

1. During a national emergency, all Fundamental Rights can be suspended.
2. The enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 can be suspended only during a national emergency caused by war or external aggression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. Not all Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a national emergency. Articles 20 and 21 remain enforceable even during an emergency.
2. The suspension of Article 19 is permitted only during a national emergency declared on the grounds of war or external aggression, not on the basis of armed rebellion.

Question 43:

Consider the following statements about the Public Accounts Committee (PAC):

1. The PAC examines the annual audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
2. The PAC has 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The PAC examines the audit reports of the CAG to ensure proper utilization of funds by the government.
2. The PAC consists of 22 members: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, elected annually.

Question 44:

Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):

1. The UPSC is responsible for conducting examinations for recruitment to all central and state services in India.
2. The President can remove a member of the UPSC for misbehavior after the Supreme Court’s recommendation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The UPSC conducts examinations for recruitment to central services, but not state services, which are under the jurisdiction of State Public Service Commissions.
2. A member of the UPSC can be removed for misbehavior only after an inquiry and recommendation by the Supreme Court.

Question 45:

Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST):

1. GST subsumes all direct and indirect taxes levied by the Union and the States.
2. The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. GST subsumes most indirect taxes like VAT, excise duty, and service tax, but not direct taxes like income tax.
2. The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A to make recommendations on GST-related matters.

 

Question 46:

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the President of India:

1. The President can promulgate ordinances only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
2. The President can pardon a sentence by a court-martial.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The President can promulgate ordinances under Article 123 when either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha is not in session.
2. Under Article 72, the President has the power to pardon sentences, including those by court-martial.

Question 47:

Consider the following statements about the Indian Parliament:

1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution, even if it has been passed by the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be reintroduced in the newly constituted Lok Sabha.
2. A bill passed by the Rajya Sabha and pending in the Lok Sabha does not lapse on dissolution but remains alive for consideration.

Question 48:

Consider the following statements about Scheduled Tribes in India:

1. The criteria for declaring a community as a Scheduled Tribe are specified in the Constitution of India.
2. The President of India can specify Scheduled Tribes in any state after consultation with the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Constitution does not specify criteria for declaring a community as a Scheduled Tribe. Criteria like geographical isolation, distinctive culture, and backwardness are considered in practice.
2. The President, in consultation with the Governor, can specify Scheduled Tribes for a state under Article 342.

Question 49:

Consider the following statements regarding the Vice President of India:

1. The Vice President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament.
2. The Vice President acts as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Vice President is elected through a system of proportional representation by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.
2. The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 50:

Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

1. The CAG audits the accounts of both the Union and the States.
2. The CAG is responsible for compiling the accounts of the Union Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The CAG audits the accounts of both the Union and the States to ensure transparency and accountability in public finances.
2. The CAG is no longer responsible for compiling the accounts of the Union Government. This function has been assigned to the Controller General of Accounts.

Question 51:

Consider the following statements about the NITI Aayog:

1. NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in 2015.
2. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog includes the Chief Ministers of all states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. NITI Aayog was established in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission and promote cooperative federalism.
2. Its Governing Council includes Chief Ministers of all states and Union Territories with legislatures, as well as Lt. Governors of Union Territories without legislatures.

Question 52:

Consider the following statements regarding Public Interest Litigation (PIL):

1. PIL allows any citizen to approach the judiciary in the interest of the public.
2. The concept of PIL in India originated from the Fundamental Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. PIL empowers any citizen to file a petition in court to address issues of public concern, even if they are not directly affected.
2. PIL in India is rooted in the Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32 of the Constitution, which allows individuals to enforce Fundamental Rights.

 

Question 53:

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):

1. The Election Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Constitution.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) has a fixed tenure of six years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Election Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Constitution to supervise elections in India.
2. The CEC does not have a fixed tenure of six years. Instead, the tenure is for six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Question 54:

Consider the following statements about the Governor of a state in India:

1. The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office at the pleasure of the President.
2. The Governor can pardon death sentences.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Governor is appointed by the President under Article 155 and holds office at the pleasure of the President (Article 156).
2. The power to pardon death sentences lies exclusively with the President under Article 72. The Governor cannot pardon death sentences but can remit, suspend, or commute other punishments under Article 161.

Question 55:

Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):

1. The NGT was established under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. The NGT has the power to hear cases related to the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, and the Air and Water Acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, not the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. The NGT has jurisdiction over cases related to laws such as the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, and the Air and Water Acts.

Question 56:

Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:

1. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution and is enforceable in a court of law.
2. The terms “Socialist” and “Secular” were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Preamble is considered a part of the Constitution as ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). However, it is not enforceable in a court of law as it does not confer any rights.
2. The terms “Socialist” and “Secular” were indeed added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.

Question 57:

Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution:

1. Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
2. Fundamental Duties apply only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners residing in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, under Part IV-A (Article 51A).
2. These duties are applicable only to Indian citizens, as they are meant to foster national unity and responsibility.

Question 58:

Consider the following statements about the Schedule Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006:

1. The Act recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling communities to access and manage forest resources.
2. It vests authority in the State Forest Department to decide on claims under the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Forest Rights Act, 2006, recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling communities to access, use, and manage forest resources.
2. The authority to decide on claims under this Act is vested in Gram Sabhas, not the State Forest Department.

Question 59:

Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST):

1. GST is levied on the supply of goods and services in both interstate and intrastate transactions.
2. GST subsumes all taxes, including customs duty and corporation tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. GST is levied on the supply of goods and services for both interstate and intrastate transactions, with IGST applied for interstate transactions.
2. GST does not subsume all taxes. Customs duty and corporation tax remain outside its ambit.

Question 60:

Consider the following statements regarding the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:

1. The Act provides for the creation of Protected Areas such as National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
2. The Act prohibits hunting of all species of animals in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, provides for the establishment of Protected Areas like National Parks, Sanctuaries, and Tiger Reserves.
2. The Act prohibits hunting of specific species, but certain animals are allowed to be hunted under exceptional circumstances.

 

Question 61:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Judiciary:

1. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President of India.
2. The Judiciary is independent of the Executive and Legislature, as per the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President under Article 124 of the Constitution.
2. The Constitution of India provides for an independent judiciary, which is free from the influence of the Executive and Legislature, ensuring the rule of law and the protection of Fundamental Rights.

Question 62:

Consider the following statements about the Parliament of India:

1. A money bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
2. The Rajya Sabha can delay a money bill by up to 14 days.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, as per Article 109 of the Constitution.
2. The Rajya Sabha can only suggest amendments to a money bill, and it must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. If not, the bill is deemed passed.

Question 63:

Consider the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

1. The DPSP are legally enforceable in a court of law.
2. The DPSP are meant to guide the government in the formulation of policies and laws.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The DPSP are not legally enforceable in a court of law. They are intended as guidelines for governance.
2. The DPSP provide a framework for the government to establish a just and equitable society, guiding policies related to welfare, social justice, and economic growth.

Question 64:

Consider the following statements regarding the President of India:

1. The President can declare a national emergency only when there is war or external aggression.
2. The President’s decision to declare a national emergency is subject to the approval of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. A national emergency can be declared under Article 352 not only during war or external aggression but also in cases of armed rebellion (which was added by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978).
2. The President’s decision to declare a national emergency must be ratified by both Houses of Parliament within one month of the declaration.

Question 65:

Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India:

1. The Constitution of India provides for a single citizenship.
2. The Constitution of India does not recognize the concept of dual citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. India has a single citizenship, where every citizen is a citizen of India, not of a particular state within India.
2. The Constitution does not allow dual citizenship, which means that an individual can only hold Indian citizenship, not citizenship of any other country.

Question 66:

Consider the following statements regarding the Lok Sabha:

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament.
2. The members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a term of six years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Lok Sabha is indeed the lower house of the Indian Parliament.
2. The members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a term of five years, not six years, unless the house is dissolved earlier.

Question 67:

Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Secretariat in India:

1. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for managing the Cabinet meetings and facilitating the implementation of decisions taken by the Cabinet.
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the highest-ranking official in the Indian administrative system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Cabinet Secretariat is indeed responsible for managing Cabinet meetings, coordinating the implementation of the Cabinet’s decisions, and ensuring smooth communication among various ministries.
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant in the Government of India and the principal adviser to the Prime Minister.

Question 68:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Economy:

1. The Indian government has a fiscal year running from January 1 to December 31.
2. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) came into effect on July 1, 2017.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Indian fiscal year runs from April 1 to March 31, not from January 1 to December 31.
2. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented on July 1, 2017, replacing multiple indirect taxes with a single unified tax.

Question 69:

Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India:

1. The Constitution of India is the longest written Constitution in the world.
2. The Constitution of India has been amended more than 100 times since its adoption.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Constitution of India is indeed the longest written Constitution in the world, with 448 articles and numerous schedules (as of 2021).
2. The Constitution has been amended more than 100 times since its adoption in 1950, with the 105th Amendment being the latest.

Question 70:

Consider the following statements about the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005:

1. The RTI Act enables citizens to access information from public authorities.
2. The Central Information Commission is responsible for hearing appeals under the RTI Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The RTI Act empowers citizens to request information from public authorities, promoting transparency and accountability in government.
2. The Central Information Commission (CIC) is responsible for hearing appeals and complaints regarding requests for information under the RTI Act.

 

Question 71:

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Process in India:

1. A member of the Rajya Sabha can be re-elected for an unlimited number of terms.
2. A candidate for the post of President of India must be a member of either House of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. A member of the Rajya Sabha can indeed be re-elected for an unlimited number of terms as long as they continue to meet the eligibility criteria.
2. A candidate for the post of President of India need not be a member of either House of Parliament. They can be an individual outside Parliament, as long as they meet the other qualifications outlined in Article 58 of the Constitution.

Question 72:

Consider the following statements about the President of India:

1. The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time.
2. The President can send a bill back to Parliament for reconsideration, except for money bills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha only after the completion of its term or when advised by the Prime Minister, and not at any time.
2. The President can indeed send a bill (except money bills) back to Parliament for reconsideration, as per Article 111 of the Constitution.

Question 73:

Consider the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs):

1. DPSPs are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be enforced in a court of law.
2. DPSPs are justiciable under certain conditions if the government violates them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable in a court of law. However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
2. The DPSPs are not justiciable under any conditions, as they serve as guiding principles rather than rights that can be claimed in a court.

Question 74:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Judiciary:

1. The Supreme Court of India is the highest appellate court in the country.
2. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in cases related to fundamental rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Supreme Court of India is indeed the highest appellate court in the country, and appeals from lower courts can be taken up in the Supreme Court.
2. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in cases related to the enforcement of fundamental rights, as per Article 32 of the Constitution, where citizens can approach the Court directly if their fundamental rights are violated.

Question 75:

Consider the following statements about the Governor of a State:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by the Chief Minister of the state.
2. The Governor holds office for a term of 5 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India, not the Chief Minister.
2. The Governor holds office for a term of five years, but they hold office at the pleasure of the President, meaning they can be removed earlier if the President decides.

Question 76:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Parliament:

1. The Parliament of India is a bicameral legislature consisting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. The President of India can dissolve the Rajya Sabha at any time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Parliament of India is indeed bicameral, consisting of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
2. The President cannot dissolve the Rajya Sabha; it is a permanent body. However, the President can dissolve the Lok Sabha.

Question 77:

Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India:

1. The Constitution of India provides for a single citizenship for the whole country.
2. The Constitution allows for the possibility of dual citizenship for Indian citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. India provides for a single citizenship for the entire country, as per Article 5 of the Constitution.
2. The Constitution does not allow dual citizenship, and an Indian citizen cannot hold citizenship of another country.

Question 78:

Consider the following statements about the Parliament of India:

1. The Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution.
2. The Parliament cannot amend the provisions related to the federal structure of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, subject to certain limitations.
2. The Parliament can amend provisions related to the federal structure, but such amendments require the consent of at least half the states, as per the procedure outlined in Article 368.

Question 79:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Constitution:

1. The Constitution of India contains provisions that protect the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
2. The Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended during a national emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Constitution of India guarantees fundamental rights under Part III, which are enforceable by the courts.
2. The Fundamental Rights are not automatically suspended during a national emergency. Only specific rights, like Article 19, can be suspended, while others remain in force.

Question 80:

Consider the following statements about the Union Territories of India:

1. The President of India governs Union Territories through appointed administrators or Lieutenant Governors.
2. The Union Territories have no representation in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The President governs Union Territories through appointed administrators or Lieutenant Governors.
2. Union Territories have representation in the Lok Sabha. For example, Delhi and Puducherry have representation through elected Members of Parliament.

 

Question 81:

Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):

1. The NCSC is a statutory body established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The NCSC looks into complaints of discrimination against Scheduled Castes by private individuals and organizations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The NCSC is indeed a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Constitution, which provides for the protection of the rights of Scheduled Castes.
2. The NCSC is a statutory body, but it is primarily concerned with the protection of Scheduled Castes against discrimination by the State, and not private individuals or organizations.

Question 82:

Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:

1. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
2. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Rajya Sabha is indeed a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution, as it is a continuous body with members retiring in staggered terms.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved by the President; only the Lok Sabha can be dissolved.

Question 83:

Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission of India:

1. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
2. The primary function of the Finance Commission is to recommend the distribution of revenue between the Union and the States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Finance Commission is indeed a constitutional body, established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
2. One of the primary functions of the Finance Commission is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States, ensuring equitable fiscal federalism.

Question 84:

Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India:

1. The Preamble of the Constitution is a part of the Constitution, but it does not have legal sanctity.
2. The Preamble of the Constitution mentions India as a “Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Preamble is considered a part of the Constitution. While it does not confer specific legal rights, it provides a guiding principle and serves as a source of interpretation for the Constitution.
2. The Preamble mentions that India is a “Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic,” reflecting the core values of the Constitution.

Question 85:

Consider the following statements about the Indian Administrative Service (IAS):

1. IAS officers are recruited through the Civil Services Examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
2. The primary function of the IAS is to formulate government policies at the national level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. IAS officers are indeed recruited through the Civil Services Examination conducted by UPSC.
2. While IAS officers play a key role in implementing government policies at the national and state levels, the formulation of policies is primarily the responsibility of the elected representatives and ministers.

Question 86:

Consider the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

1. DPSPs are enforceable by the courts of law.
2. DPSPs are designed to ensure social and economic justice for all citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. DPSPs are not enforceable by courts; they are non-justiciable in nature and provide guidance to the government in framing policies.
2. DPSPs are designed to ensure social and economic justice by promoting welfare, equality, and the establishment of a just society.

Question 87:

Consider the following statements regarding the Union Cabinet:

1. The Union Cabinet is the principal decision-making body of the Government of India.
2. The Union Cabinet consists only of the Cabinet Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Union Cabinet is the principal decision-making body of the Government of India, consisting of senior ministers who advise the President.
2. The Union Cabinet consists not only of the Cabinet Ministers but also includes the Prime Minister and other ministers of state or independent charge, depending on the structure.

Question 88:

Consider the following statements about the Lok Sabha (House of the People):

1. The Lok Sabha is the upper house of the Indian Parliament.
2. The total strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552 members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament, not the upper house. The Rajya Sabha is the upper house.
2. The total strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 545 members, not 552. The Lok Sabha can have a maximum of 545 members, of which 530 are elected from states and union territories, 13 from Union Territories, and 2 are nominated by the President.

Question 89:

Consider the following statements about the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC):

1. The NJAC was created by the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2014.
2. The NJAC was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015, declaring it unconstitutional.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The NJAC was indeed created by the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2014 to reform the judicial appointment process.
2. The Supreme Court struck down the NJAC in 2015, declaring it unconstitutional on the grounds that it undermined the independence of the judiciary.

Question 90:

Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution:

1. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Fundamental Duties are not mentioned in Part III; they are included in Part IVA (Articles 51A) of the Constitution.
2. The Fundamental Duties were indeed added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Question 91:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Parliament:

1. The President of India can address both Houses of Parliament.
2. The President has the power to summon and prorogue Parliament, but not to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The President of India can address both Houses of Parliament, but they do not usually take part in debates.
2. While the President has the power to summon and prorogue Parliament, the dissolution of the Lok Sabha can only be done by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Question 92:

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the President of India:

1. The President can issue ordinances when the Parliament is not in session.
2. The President can withhold a bill passed by Parliament, except in the case of money bills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The President has the power to promulgate ordinances when the Parliament is not in session under Article 123 of the Constitution.
2. The President can withhold a bill, but this power does not extend to money bills. Money bills must be passed by Parliament within a specified time, and the President cannot withhold them indefinitely.

Question 93:

Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court of India:

1. The Supreme Court has the power to review laws passed by Parliament and declare them unconstitutional.
2. The Supreme Court of India can issue writs to enforce the Fundamental Rights under Article 32 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review under Article 13, enabling it to review laws passed by Parliament and declare them unconstitutional if they violate the Constitution.
2. The Supreme Court can issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution to enforce Fundamental Rights, making it a key protector of these rights.

Question 94:

Consider the following statements about the Governor of a State in India:

1. The Governor holds office for a fixed term of five years.
2. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state and acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Governor does not have a fixed term of five years. They hold office at the pleasure of the President of India, meaning they can be removed earlier.
2. The Governor is indeed the constitutional head of the state and generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in certain exceptional situations.

Question 95:

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

1. The DPSPs are justiciable in nature and can be enforced by the courts.
2. The DPSPs aim to promote social and economic welfare and guide the government in policy formulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts. They serve as guiding principles rather than enforceable rights.
2. The DPSPs aim to promote the social and economic welfare of the people and guide the government in framing policies, aiming for a just society.

Question 96:

Consider the following statements regarding the Vice President of India:

1. The Vice President of India is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament.
2. The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Vice President of India is elected by the members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, through a process of proportional representation.
2. The Vice President is indeed the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and presides over its sessions.

Question 97:

Consider the following statements about the Parliament of India:

1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha.
2. The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha, which together form the legislative branch.
2. The President is not a member of either House of Parliament but is an integral part of the Parliament.

Question 98:

Consider the following statements about the impeachment of the President of India:

1. The impeachment motion can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
2. The President can only be impeached for the violation of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The impeachment motion can be initiated in either House of Parliament, but it must be passed by a two-thirds majority in the House where it is introduced.
2. The President can only be impeached for the violation of the Constitution, as per Article 61 of the Constitution.

Question 99:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Constitution:

1. The Indian Constitution is the longest written Constitution in the world.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for a single citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Indian Constitution is indeed the longest written Constitution in the world, containing 448 Articles, 12 Schedules, and numerous amendments.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for a single citizenship for all citizens of India, irrespective of the states they reside in.

Question 100:

Consider the following statements regarding the structure of the Indian Judiciary:

1. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India.
2. The judiciary in India is independent of the executive and the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India based on seniority among the judges of the Supreme Court.
2. The judiciary in India is independent of the executive and the legislature, ensuring that it can act without interference and uphold the rule of law.

 

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