HSSC Clerk Exam 27 Nov & 4,11 Dec Most Expected Questions Part 7

1. In which type of unemployment, the

marginal productivity of labour is zero ?

(A) Structural unemployment

(B) Frictional unemployment

(C) Cyclical unemployment

(D) Disguised unemployment

2. The co-existence of relatively developed

and economically depressed states as

well as regions within each state is

known as

(A) Unbalanced economy

(B) Regional backwardness

(C) Regional imbalance

(D) None of the above

3. Who among the following developed the

Second Five Year Plan ?

(A) S. Chakravarty

(B) P.C. Mahalanobis

(C) V.K.R.V. Rao

(D) A.K. Sen

4. Which of the following plans focused on

“Growth with Social Justice and Equity” ?

(A) Seventh Plan (B) Eighth Plan

(C) Ninth Plan (D) Tenth Plan

5. New economic reforms were introduced

in 1991 and exports were stepped up.

Imports were also liberalised with a view

to

(A) provide lower cost output

(B) meet shortfall in demand

(C) to improve Repo rate

(D) to improve efficiency, quality and

technology

6. Which of the following is not the

compelling reason for the introduction of

economic reforms ?

(A) Inflation

(B) Rising fiscal deficit

(C) Falling foreign exchange reserves

(D) Unsatisfactory performance of the

private sector

7. What is JAM ?

(A) Janta – Aarogya – Mother

(B) Jan Dhan – Aarogya – Mobile

(C) Jan Dhan – Aadhaar – Mobile

(D) Jan Dhan – Aadhaar – Mother

8. What was India’s approximate

foodgrains production in 2015-16 ?

(A) 300 million tonnes

(B) 250 million tonnes

(C) 200 million tonnes

(D) 150 million tonnes

8. Which of the following can be regarded

as the most recent tax reforms in India ?

(A) Goods and Services Tax Bill

(B) Direct Tax Code Bill

(C) Companies Act, 2013

(D) International Financial Reporting

Standards (IFRSs)

9. Liberalisation in 1991 involved the

following reforms, except

(A) External sector

(B) Financial sector

(C) Agricultural sector

(D) Industrial sector

(E) Not Attempted

10. Globalisation has the following aspects :

(A) Reduction of trade barriers

(B) Facilitate free flow of capital across

nations

(C) Permit free flow of technology

across nations

(D) All of the above

11. WTO agreement came into force from

(A) January 1, 1994

(B) January 1, 1995

(C) January 1, 1996

(D) January 1, 1998

(E) Not Attempted

12. Agreement on Trade of Textiles and

Clothing under WTO envisaged that all

non-tariff barriers in textiles and clothing

industries would be done away with by

(A) January 1, 1996

(B) January 1, 1998

(C) January 1, 2005

(D) January 1, 2010

13. Which one of the following is not the

justification for the initiation of second

generation reforms ?

(A) Skill development

(B) Environment protection

(C) Inclusive growth and sustainable

development

(D) Fiscal reforms

14. What is India’s external debt GDP ratio

at the end of March 2016 ?

(A) 28.3% (B) 23.7%

(C) 21.2% (D) 31.9%

15. What is India’s GDP growth in First

Quarter of 2016-17 ?

(A) 3.4% (B) 6.1%

(C) 8.1% (D) 7.1%

16. Gross fixed capital formation as

percentage of GDP in April-June 2016

(at current prices) was :

(A) 31.6% (B) 28.3%

(C) 30.6% (D) 26.5%

(E) Not Attempted

17. A favourable climate for “import

substitution” in India started after

(A) Second Five Year Plan

(B) Third Five Year Plan

(C) Fourth Five Year Plan

(D) None of the above

18. What does EPZ stands for ?

(A) Export Production Zone

(B) Export Promotion Zone

(C) Export Processing Zone

(D) Export Payment Zone

19. Which of the following is not one of the

top eight export sectors of India, in

recent past ?

(A) Ores and minerals

(B) Agriculture and allied products

(C) Chemical and related products

(D) Gems and jewellery

20. Which of the following sectors has been

having the largest share in India’s

imports during the recent past ?

(A) Machinery

(B) Electronic goods

(C) Gems and jewellery

(D) Petroleum products and crude oil

21. Which one of the following is the first

state of India to ratify GST bill ?

(A) Gujarat (B) Orissa

(C) Assam (D) Telangana

22. Who is the author of the book “Poverty

and the un-British rule in India” ?

(A) M.L. Dantwala

(B) Dadabhai Naoroji

(C) P.D. Ojha

(D) B.S. Minhas

23. Which economist gave plans for the

upliftment of the Indian poverty stricken

people ?

(A) John Maynard Keynes

(B) A.C. Pigou

(C) Jagdish Bhagwati

(D) Amartya Sen

24. “No society can surely be flourishing

and happy, of which by far the greater

part of numbers are poor and miserable.”

This statement was made by

(A) Adam Smith

(B) Alfred Marshall

(C) Suresh D. Tendulkar

(D) Amartya Sen

25. Under MGNREGA, all those who are

able to and are in need of work have

been granted employment for how many

days in a year ?

(A) 365 days (B) 300 days

(C) 100 days (D) 200 days

26. According to Census 2011, which are

the three most populated States of India,

in the descending order ?

(A) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, W. Bengal

(B) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar

(C) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh

(D) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh

27. Which of the following is not a reason of

income inequalities in India ?

(A) Progressive taxation

(B) Concentration of wealth

(C) Inflation

(D) Skewed land ownership

(E) Not Attempted

28. According to UNDP Report 2015 on

human development, what percentage of

Indians are estimated to suffer from

multidimensional poverty ?

(A) 22% (B) 37%

(C) 54% (D) 75%

29. What has been the rate of growth

(annual) of India’s population during

2001 and 2011 ?

(A) 1.40% (B) 1.76%

(C) 1.90% (D) 2.10%

30. By which year does the Swachchh Bharat

Abhiyan aims at Open Defacation Free

India by providing access to toilet

facilities to all rural households ?

(A) 2017 (B) 2019

(C) 2022 (D) 2024

31. Of the concluded Eleven Five Year

Plans, which plan has achieved the

maximum growth rate ?

(A) Eighth Plan (1992-97)

(B) Ninth Plan (1997-2002)

(C) Tenth Plan (2002-07)

(D) Eleventh Plan (2007-12)

32. On which data the estimation of poverty

ratio in India is based ?

(A) Consumption expenditure

(B) Income

(C) Wealth

(D) Unemployment

33. Government Finance is known as

(A) National Finance

(B) Public Finance

(C) Private Finance

(D) None of the above

34. The principle(s) of taxation is/are

(A) Principle of equality

(B) Principle of certainty

(C) Principle of secrecy

(D) Both (A) and (B) above

35. Which of the following tax is the best

example of the ability to pay principle of

taxes ?

(A) Excise duty on cigarettes

(B) Personal income tax

(C) Proportional sales tax

(D) Highway toll tax

36. Government taxing and spending policy

is called as

(A) Fiscal policy

(B) Monetary policy

(C) Commercial policy

(D) Finance policy

37. A budgetary approach in which input of

resources is related to output of services

is called as

(A) Zero base budgeting

(B) Planning programme budgeting

(C) Incremental budgeting

(D) Performance based budgeting

38. Zero based budgeting forces managers to

(A) Prepare a budget based on

historical costs.

(B) Formulate a budget by objective

rather than function.

(C) Justify all expenditures at the

beginning of each budgetary year.

(D) Estimate a product’s revenues and

expenses over its expected life cycle.

39. In which case can the tax burden be

shifted ?

(A) Indirect taxes

(B) Direct taxes

(C) Estate duty (tax)

(D) Wealth tax

40. Which of the following sources of

internal borrowings is not a part of

public savings ?

(A) Balances from current revenue

(B) Surpluses of public enterprises

(C) Additional resource mobilisation

(D) Loans from public

41. Excess of budgetary expenditure over

budgetary non-debt receipts is called

(A) Revenue deficit

(B) Fiscal deficit

(C) Primary deficit

(D) None of the above

42. The current values of the Repo rate and

Reverse Repo rate in our country,

respectively, are

(A) 6% and 6.5% (B) 6.5% and 6%

(C) 6.5% and 6.25% (D) 7% and 6 %

43. Which of the following banks is not a

public sector bank ?

(A) State Bank of India

(B) Bank of Baroda

(C) Axis Bank

(D) Indian Overseas Bank

44. According to Raghuram Rajan, the target

and instrument variable of the Reserve

Bank of India, respectively, are

(A) Inflation, Interest rate

(B) Growth, money supply

(C) Unemployment, bank credit

(D) Liquidity, high-power money

45. The largest 14 banks were nationalised

in India, in which year ?

(A) 1951 (B) 1969

(C) 1991 (D) 2009

46. 14th Finance Commission has recast its

fiscal transfer formula with a view to

increase forest cover. What weight is

allotted by it for the presence of forest

cover ?

(A) 5.5% (B) 6.5%

(C) 7.5% (D) 8.5%

47. Which of the following is not included in

the HDI (Human Development Index) ?

(A) Globalisation

(B) Life expectancy

(C) Literacy

(D) Per Capita Income

48. Who received the Nobel Prize for

Economics for the pioneer work in

International Trade ?

(A) Paul Anthony Samuelson

(B) Paul Krugman

(C) Amartya Sen

(D) Jagdish Bhagwati

49. Which of the following currencies will

be included as the fifth currency in the

SDR basket with effect of October 1,

2016 ?

(A) U.S. Dollar

(B) Chinese Renminbi

(C) Japanese Yen

(D) Indian Rupee

50. Development that meets the needs of the

present without compromising the ability

of future generations to meet their needs

is called as

(A) Economic development

(B) Human development

(C) Sustainable development

(D) Balanced development

51. One of the most important conditions

laid down by IMF for grant of assistance

during 1991 economic reforms was

(A) Reduced Repo Rate

(B) Increased interest rate

(C) Reduced poverty

(D) Devaluation of Indian rupee

52. Which of the following organisations

prepare Human Development Report ?

(A) World Bank

(B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

(C) United Nations Organisation

(UNO)

(D) United Nations Development

Programme (UNDP)

53. What is the main aim of SAARC ?

(A) Non-alignity

(B) Regional Co-operation

(C) Non-interference in other’s internal

affairs

(D) None of the above

54. Where is the ASEAN Secretariat located ?

(A) Singapore (B) Malaysia

(C) Indonesia (D) Thailand

55. What are the current CRR and SLR rates

in India ?

(A) 4% and 21%, respectively

(B) 2.5% and 23%, respectively

(C) 4% and 25%, respectively

(D) None of the above

56. Which of the following is not a credit

rating agency ?

(A) ICRA (B) SEBI

(C) CRISIL (D) Fitch Ratings

57. What is the aim of imposing excise to

protect the new industries ?

(A) Help foreign industries establish

themselves in the local market

(B) Help consumers enjoy a variety of

products in the local market

(C) Provide incentives for established

local manufacturing firms to

venture in foreign markets

(D) Protect young manufacturing

products from foreign competition

58. Who said “Administration is now so vast

area that a philosophy of administration

comes close to being a philosophy of

life” ?

(A) Woodrow Wilson

(B) Dwight Waldo

(C) Marshall E. Dimock

(D) F.M. Marx

59. Who conceived the idea of ‘Gram

Swaraj’ ?

(A) Jayprakash Narayan

(B) Vinoba Bhave

(C) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Dayanand Saraswati

60. The Committee on Assurances in the

Indian House of People (Lok Sabha) is

accountable to

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Speaker

(D) Leader of Opposition

61. The process of Bharatiya Mahila Bank’s

merger with which Nationalized Bank is

going on ?

(A) State Bank of India

(B) Bank of Baroda

(C) Central Bank of India

(D) Punjab National Bank

62. The subject of Audit of accounts of the

states is in the

(A) Union list

(B) State list

(C) Concurrent list

(D) Residuary matters

63. Which one of the following articles in

Indian Constitution provides that a

money bill shall not be introduced in the

Council of States ?

(A) 109(1) (B) 109(2)

(C) 109(3) (D) 107(1)

64. A budgeting technique, “which

compliments and links to the existing

planning, budgeting and reviews

process’ is known as

(A) Traditional Budgeting

(B) Performance Budgeting

(C) Programme, Planning and Budgeting

System

(D) Zero Based Budgeting

65. Which one of the following is not a

‘charged’ expenditure in India ?

(A) President’s emoluments

(B) Salary and allowances of Prime

Minister

(C) Salary of Lok Sabha Speaker

(D) Salary of the judges of Supreme Court

66. Which one of the following years

witnessed the introduction of Gift Tax

by the Government of India ?

(A) 1953 (B) 1957

(C) 1958 (D) 1962

67. National Development Council was set

up in the year

(A) 1947 (B) 1950

(C) 1951 (D) 1952

68. Which one of the following is not

statutory or constitutional body ?

(A) Union Public Service Commission

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) National Development Council

(D) Central Vigilance Commission

69. Who defined civil services as “a

professional body of permanent, paid

and skilled officials” ?

(A) Herman Finer (B) E.N. Gladden

(C) O.G. Stahel (D) B. Flippo

70. Which one of the following articles of

the Indian Constitution restricts the

number of Ministers in a State ?

(A) Article 163 (1 A)

(B) Article 164 (1 A)

(C) Article 165 (1 A)

(D) Article 166 (1 A)

71. Which one of the following States had

93 ministers in its Council of Ministers

at one point of time ?

(A) Bihar (B) Maharashtra

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) West Bengal

72. Which one of the following functions

was divested by Cornwallis Code of

1793 from the office of the collector ?

(A) Collection of Taxes

(B) Maintenance of law and order

(C) Management of jails

(D) Judicial functions

73. Which one of the following has

recommended that “there is no need to

have an intermediate level of

administration between the two units

(i.e. state and district) of government” ?

(A) First Administrative Reforms

Commission

(B) Sarkaria Commission

(C) Second Administrative Reforms

Commission

(D) Punchhi Commission

74. Organization and Methods (O & M )

Division was set up in the Cabinet

Secretariat during the year-

(A) 1952 (B) 1954

(C) 1956 (D) 1960

75. Who recommended setting up ‘an

Exclusive Vigilance Cell at district level

under overall supervision of the District

Collector’ ?

(A) Select Committee on Prevention of

Corruption in Administration

(B) Santhanam Committee

(C) Constitutional Review Commission

(D) Second Administrative Reforms

Commission

76. Which one of the following is not

correct regarding Second Administrative

Reforms Commission’s recommendation

to set up a ‘District Council’ at district

level ?

(A) District Council should have

representation both from urban and

rural areas.

(B) District Council is to be considered

as District Government.

(C) District Collector should work as

chief executive officer of the

District Council.

(D) District Collector should not be made

accountable to District Council.

77. Which one of the following provinces /

territories was in Part-C, at the time of

adoption of the Constitution in India ?

(A) Assam (B) Hyderabad

(C) Saurashtra (D) Kutch

78. The role of the collector regarding

certain responsibilities varies from one

state to another state. Select which one

of the following roles is similar across

different states of the country ?

(A) Food and Civil Supplies

(B) Economic Development

(C) Human Resource

(D) Local Self Government

79. Who is the Chairman of the Expert

Committee constituted in 2015 for the

reforms in the Civil Services

examination of Union Public Service

Commission (UPSC) ?

(A) Venu Gopal Rao

(B) Virappa Moily

(C) Ashok Kumar

(D) B.S. Baswan

80. Who was the chairman of the 14th

Finance Commission ?

(A) Dr. Y.V. Reddy

(B) Dr. M. Govind Rao

(C) Ms. Sushma Nath

(D) Shri Ajay Narayan Jha

81. Which article of the Constitution

provides for the creation of an All India

Judicial Service ?

(A) Article 310 (B) Article 311

(C) Article 312 (D) Article 315

82. Which one of the following Finance

Commissions recommended :

“The grants that we recommend should

go to gram panchayats, which are

responsible for delivery of basic services,

without any share for any other level” ?

(A) XI – Finance Commission

(B) XII – Finance Commission

(C) XIII – Finance Commission

(D) XIV – Finance Commission

83. Which one of the following is a committee

on Panchayati Raj Institutions ?

(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee

(C) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(D) Ashok Mehta Committee

84. Which of the following Article provide

the basis for imposing President’s rule in

a State ?

(A) Article 365 (B) Article 360

(C) Article 357 (D) Article 352

85. Which of the following Constitutional

Amendment Acts provided for the

appointment of the same person as

Governor for two or more states ?

(A) 4th Amendment (B) 7th Amendment

(C) 11th Amendment (D) 24th Amendment

86. Which one of the following is correct

about powers of the Governor of a State ?

(A) Acts with the aid and advice of

Council of Ministers always.

(B) Has the power to appoint and

remove members of State Public

Service Commission.

(C) Possesses judicial powers

analogous to the President.

(D) All the above are correct.

87. Which of the following is not correct

regarding the impact of L.P.G.

(Liberalization, Privatization &

Globalization) process on Public

Administration ?

(A) Contracting out of services

(B) Disinvestment in public sector

(C) Corporate Management

(D) Enhanced role of the state

88. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India

(TRAI) was established by Government

of India in which of the following years ?

(A) 1995 (B) 1997

(C) 1998 (D) 2000

89. Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence

in Public Administration is handled by

which of the following ministry /

organization of Government of India ?

(A) Ministry of Personnel, Public

Grievances & Pensions

(B) Ministry of Home Affairs

(C) Cabinet Secretariat

(D) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)

90. Which one of the following is not an example

of Public Private Partnership (PPP) ?

(A) Build, Operate, Own and Transfer

(BOOT)

(B) Build, Operate and Own (BOO)

(C) Build, Operate and Transfer (BOT)

(D) Design, Build, Finance, Operate

and Own (DBFOO)

91. Which of the following committee/

commission/report recommended to

establish the institution of Lok Pal at the

Central Level and Lokayukta at the State

Level in India ?

(A) The Paul H. Appleby Report

(B) 1st Administrative Reforms

Commission Report

(C) A.D. Gorwala Report

(D) State Reorganization Commission

92. Social Audit for the first time fully and

legally was implemented in which of the

following programmes ?

(A) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swaraj Yojana

(B) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural

Employment Guarantee Scheme

(MNREGS)

(C) Sampurna Gramin Rojgar Yojana

(D) MP / MLA Local Area Development

Programme

93. Which of the following is not correctly

matched ?

(Writ) (Intention or meaning)

(A) Certiorari – Issued against Judicial/

Quasi Judicial Authorities

(B) Quo

Warranto

– Prevents illegal

assumption of public

office.

(C) Prohibition – Issued by highest

officers to his/her

subordinate.

(D) Mandamus – Issued by the court to a

public official asking to

perform official duties.

94. When was Antyodaya Ann Yojana (AAY)

implemented ?

(A) 1970 (B) 2000

(C) 1995 (D) 2002

95. ‘Operation Flood’ relates to

(A) Flood Mitigation

(B) Flood Rehabilitation

(C) Ushering in ‘white revolution’

(D) Self sufficiency in cereals

96. Integrated development of slums through

projects for providing shelter, basic

services etc. to urban poor has been

undertaken under -

(A) Environmental Improvement of

Urban Slums

(B) Nehru Rozgar Yojana

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban

Renewal Mission

(D) Urban Infrastructure and Governance

Programme

97. Program, Evaluation and Review

Technique was developed by

(A) UK Naval Engineers

(B) US Naval Engineers

(C) Indian Naval Engineers

(D) Russian Naval Engineers

98. Who wrote ‘New Despotism’ ?

(A) Ernst Freund (B) W.A. Robson

(C) L.D. White (D) Lord Hewart

99. Which of the following are examples of

essential legislative functions in India ?

(i) Power to amend or repeal an Act

(ii) Power to impose taxes

(iii) Power to impose new penalties

(iv) Power to oust the jurisdiction of

law courts

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i) and (iv)

100. When was the first Parliamentary General

Election conducted under the existing

delimited constituency framework ?

(A) 1999

(B) 2004

(C) 2009

(D) 2014

101. If a question arises whether a bill is a money

bill or not, who decides this question ?

(A) The President of India

(B) The Finance Minister, GOI

(C) Speaker of the House of People

(Lok Sabha)

(D) Chairperson, Rajya Sabha

102. Which one of the following articles of

the Constitution of India provides for the

‘Appropriation Bill’ at the union

government level ?

(A) Article 110 (B) Article 112

(C) Article 113 (D) Article 114

103. The proposal through which the amount

of the demand is sought to be reduced by

` l (Rupee One only) is called as

(A) Economy Cut Motion

(B) Policy Cut Motion

(C) Credit Cut Motion

(D) Token Cut Motion

104. In which of the following years, for the

first time, the system of ‘Memorandum

of Understanding’ (MoU) between

Government and PSUs was introduced ?

(A) 1986-1987 (B) 1987-1988

(C) 1998-1999 (D) 2000-2001

105. The Disinvestment Department in

Government of India was first

established/started in which of the

following years ?

(A) 1992 (B) 1993

(C) 1999 (D) 2001

106. When did the Government of India

recognize nine Public Sector

Undertakings (PSUs) as ‘Navratna’

status for the first time ?

(A) 1991 (B) 1995

(C) 1997 (D) 2001

107. Economic and Social Planning is the 20th

entry of which of the following lists of

the Constitution of India ?

(A) Union List (B) State List

(C) Concurrent List (D) Residuary List

108. A Committee for District Planning to

consolidate the plans of Panchayats &

Municipalities in the district is provided

by which of the following articles of the

Constitution of India ?

(A) Article 243 A (B) Article 243 B

(C) Article 243 ZD (D) Article 243 ZE

109. Consider the following regarding ‘NITI Aayog’

(i) The P.M. is its chairman.

(ii) The Governing Council consists of

all the Chief Ministers of states and

LG’s of Union territories.

(iii) The Vice-Chairman is to be

appointed by the P.M.

(iv) Its tenure shall be five year.

Select the correct answer using codes

given below :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

110. The emoluments & allowances of the Governor

are charged on which of the following ?

(A) The Consolidated Fund of India

(B) The Consolidated Fund of the

Concerned State

(C) 50-50 from the Central and State

Consolidated Fund

(D) 50-50 from the Central and State

Contingency Fund

111. To promote Inter-State Trade and

Commerce among various states, the

Parliament should take steps to establish

“An Inter-State Trade and Commerce

Commission”. This recommendation

was given by which of the following ?

(A) Sarkaria Commission

(B) National Commission to review the

working of the Constitution

(C) Second Administrative Reforms

Commission (A.R.C.)

(D) First Administrative Reforms

Commission (A.R.C.)

 

112. Which of the following reports

submitted by Second Administrative

Reforms Commission is concerned with

‘State and District Administration’ ?

(A) Fifth Report

(B) Tenth Report

(C) Thirteenth Report

(D) Fifteenth Report

113. Which of the following provisions of the

Constitution of India deals with

‘Services under the Union and States’ ?

(A) Article 308-323

(B) Article 308-329

(C) Article 348-351

(D) Article 148-151

114. Based on the proposal passed by Rajya

Sabha in 1961, The Third All India

Service, “Indian Forest Service” was

created in which of the following years ?

(A) 1962 (B) 1963

(C) 1966 (D) 1968

115. Consider the following about the

methods of capacity building :

(i) Training (ii) Reforms

(iii) Technology (iv) Democratic values

Select the correct answers using the

codes given below :

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

116. Which one of the following ministry is

the Nodal Administrative Ministry for

‘Joint Consultative Machinery’ in India ?

(A) Ministry of Home Affairs

(B) Ministry of Labour and Employment

(C) Ministry of Personnel, Public

Grievances and Pensions

(D) Ministry of Social Justice and

Empowerment

117. Which one of the following is not a

subordinate or attached or autonomous

organization of ‘Ministry of Finance’

Government of India ?

(A) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

(B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

(C) Insurance Regulatory and

Development Authority (IRDA)

(D) Disinvestment Department (DD)

118. On which of the following dates the

‘Panchayati Raj Diwas’ is celebrated in

India every year ?

(A) 21st April (B) 24th April

(C) 26th April (D) 2nd October

119. The concept of ‘3 F’ in the context of

Local Government or Rural Local

Government means

(A) Funding, functions and feedback

(B) Forces, feedback and funding

(C) Functioning, fast and funds

(D) Funds, functions and functionaries

120.In Bhddhism the symbol of the wheel with

its eight spokes represents

(A) The noble eight fold paths

(B) The eight disciples of lord Buddha

(C) The eight books of Buddhism

(D) None of the above

KUSHMANDA  8000 MOST EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR HSSC CLERK  EXAM 2016 ( 27 NOV, 4&11 DEC 2016)

What you will get