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PAPER I : General Studies

1)   In India other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose what is the importance of the office of the CAG?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the parliament when the president of India declares national emergency/ financial emergency
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the PAC/
3. Information form CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with audit and accounting of govt. companies. CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the above are correct?

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

2) The endeavour of Janine suraksha yojana programme is

1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinements
   Which of the above are correct?
4. 1 and 2 only
5. 2 only
6. 3 only
7. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

3)  The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/ her appointment

1. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
2. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
3. must be a member of one of the Houses of the parliament
4. must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Answer: A

4. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or  State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

5. Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor Transport undertakings
3. Newspaper Establishments
4. Private Medical Institutions

The Employers of which of the above can have the “ Social Security coverage under Employees State Insurance Scheme?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 4 only
3. 1, 3 and only 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

6. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer the using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

7. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and rajyasabha calls for a joint sitting of the parliament during the passage of

1. ordinary legislation
2. money bill
3. constitution amendment bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A

8. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the cause of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilisation of the funds intended for anti-poverty programme.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

9. Which of the following is/ are among the fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

10. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the supreme court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court judges, the president of India has to consult the CJI.
2 the SC judges can be removed by the CJI only
3 the salaries of judges are charged on the consolidated fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the SC are made by the govt only after CJI
correct
a 13
b 34
c 4
d 1234

Answer: A

11. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
Correct
a ) 1
b) 23
c) 13
d) 123

Answer: D

12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
a)  the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
b)  the UV part of the solar radiation
c) all the solar radiations
d)  the infrared part of the solar radiation

Answer: D

13. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium

b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorous

d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

Answer: B

14. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of BT brinjal in India?
1 BT brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2 the seeds of BT brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3 there is an apprehension that the consumption of BT brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4 there is some concern that the introduction of BT brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
Correct
a 1, 2 and 3 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 3 and 4 only
d 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: D

15. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought

2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce

3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations

4. To increase their shelf life

Answer: c

16. The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British

2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts stored

3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

17. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal Period.

2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.

3. Dhrupad Alap users Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct answer: B

18. How do you distinguish between kuchipudi and bharatnatyam dances?
1.  Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues i found in kuchipudi dance but not in bharatnatyam.
2 . Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of bharatnatyam but have such a form of movements.
Correct
a)  1 only
b)  2 only
c)  both 1 and 2
d)  neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

20. The Rowlatt act aimed at
a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
c) suppression of the khilafat movement
d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

Answer: B

21. The Lahore session of the Indian nat. congress 1929 is very important in history because
1 the congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2 rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that session
3 a resolution was passed rejecting two nation theory in that session
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None of the above

Answer: A

22. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called “Bhumiparsh Mudra”. it symbolizes
a) Buddha’s calling of the earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
b) Buddha’s calling of the earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
c ) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the earth and finally dissolve into the earth and thus this life is transitory
d)  both a and b are correct.

Answer: D

23. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
a bhakti
b image worship and yajnas
c worship of nature and yajnas
d worship of nature and bhakti

Answer: C

28. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment on India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India

2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies

3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies

4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans: D

24. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.

2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.

3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

25. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
1 Other bank retains their deposits with the RBI.
2 The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3 The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Correct
a )2 and 3 only
b )1 and 2 only
c )1 and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

26. Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains ‘arise?
1. when there is an increase in the sales of a product
2 .when there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned.
3. when you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b )2 and 3 only
c )2 only
d )1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

27. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of govt securities from the public by the central bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3 .borrowing by the govt. from the central bank
4 .Sale of govt. secs. To the public by the central bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a )1
b )2 and 4 only
c )1 and 3
d )2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

28. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment on India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India

2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies

3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies

4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: D

29. Consider the following statement:

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank

2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned

3. Stability of the government of the concerned country

4. Economic potential of the country in question.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1,2 ,3 and 4

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: B

30. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
a) big banks should try to open offices in each district
b )there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
c )individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
d )all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits.

Answer: C

31. Consider the following:

1. Assessment of the land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops.
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare

3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
a )1 only
b )1and 2
c )2and 3
d) None

Answer: D

32. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) if ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the state and the king was the chief admen authority on them
2 .The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a )1 and 2 only
b )3 only
c )2and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

33. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provide in the
a) Marley-Minto reforms 1909
b)Montagu Chelmsford act 1919
c) Govt. of India act, 1935
d )Indian independence act 1947

Answer: C

34. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future and import it from other countries for the present use.
2 most of the power plants in India are coal based and they are not able to get sufficient applies of coal from within the country?
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported
correct

a)      1 only

b)      2 and 3 only

c)       1 and 3 only

d)      1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

35. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5km east of the point where he was standing .He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar, the most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
a) facing the polestar
b) opposite to the polestar
c) keeping the polestar to his left
d) keeping the polestar to his right

Answer: C

36. Recently there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called rare earth metals. Why?
1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2 Other than china, Australia, Canada, Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3 Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is growing demand for these elements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a 1 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
4 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

37) Consider the following protected areas:

1. Bandipur

2. Bhitarkanika

3. Manas

4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

38. Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.

2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

39. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
a Rainfall throughout the year
b Rainfall in winter only
c An extremely short dry season
a A definite dry and wet season

Answer: D

40. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
a Biosphere reserves
b National parks
c Wetlands declared under Ramsar convention
d Wildlife sanctuaries

Answer: B

41. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1.  Bat
2.  Bee
3.  Bird
which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

42. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
a. Great Indian bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
b. Kashmir Stag, Cheetah, Blue Bull, GIB
c. Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey, Saras (Crane)
d. Lion Tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur, Cheetah

Answer: A

43. Consider the following statements:

If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
1 it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2 one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3 the blotting paper would paper would fail to function
4 the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the earth
Which of the following statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

44. The Millenium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

a) Production of food and water

b) Control of climate and disease

c) Nutrient Cycling and crop pollinator

d) Maintenance of diversity

Answer: C

45. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
a )Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
c )Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north east India only.
d )None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

Answer: A

46. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
1 Global warming
2 Fragmentation of habitat
3 Invasion of alien species
4 Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

47. Consider the following:

1. Black necked crane

2. Cheetah

3. Flying squirrel

4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

48. Consider the following agricultural practices:

1. Contour bunding

2. Relay cropping

3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/ storage in the soil?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) None of them

Answer: B

49. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.

2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.

3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

50. Vultures used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species

b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle

c) Scarcity of food available to them

d) a widespread, persistant and fatal disease among them

Answer: B

51. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 what is the role/ power of Gram Sabah?
1. Gram Sabah has the power to prevent alienation of land in the scheduled area.
2. Gram Sabah has the ownership of minor forest produce
3. Recommendation of gram Sabah is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the scheduled areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a 1
b 1 and 2 only
c 2 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

52. In the parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
a. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
b. to leer opposition members collect information from the ministers
c to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
d to postpone th proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

Answer: A

53. How does National Biodiversity Authority help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopairacy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3 Applications for intellectual property rights related to genetic/ biological resources can not be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a 1
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

54. The national green tribunal act. 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the constitution of India?
1 Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under article 21
2 Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the scheduled areas for the welfare of scheduled tribes under article 275(1)
3 Powers and functions of gram Sabah as mentioned under article 243 (A)
correct
a 1 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

55. If national water mission is properly and completely implemented how will it impact the country?
1 Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste water.
2 The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore wells and for installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a 1 only
b 1 and 2 only
c 3 and 4 only
d 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

56. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code

2. Organising village panchayats

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in th Directive Principles of State Policy?

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

57. Consider the following statements:
1. Union territories are not presented in the Rajya Sabah
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes
3. According to the constitution of India, parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabah only
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a 1 Only
b 2 and 3
c 1and 3 only
d None

Answer: D

58. With reference to consumer’s rights / privileges under the provision of law in India which of the following statements correct?
1 Consumer are empowered to take samples for food testing
2 when consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
a 1 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

59. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha speaker consider the following statements:
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President
2 He/She need not be a member of the house at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six moths from the date of his/her election
3. If he/she intends to resign the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c )1,2 and 3
d) None

Answer: B

60. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. Dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3 A dispute between the Government of India and Union Territory
4 A disputes between two or more States.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c)1 and 4

d) 3 and 4

Answer: C

61. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1 Bacteria
2 fungi
3 flowering plants
some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as bio pesticides?
a )1 only
b )2 and 3 only
c )1 and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

62. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context which of the following statements correct?
1 Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification
2 The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only
3.The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a )1 only
b )2 and 3 only
c )1 and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

63. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.

2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.

3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

64. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its important?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.

2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.

3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.

4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ requires for touch screens, LCD’s and organic LED’s

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1,2 and  only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

65. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
1 Smelting units
2 Pens pencils
3 Paints
4 Hair oils and cosmetics
select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

66. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a)       1 and 2

b)       2 and 3 only

c)       3 only

d)       1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

67. Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone depleting substances are used
1. In the production of plastic foams
2 in the production of tubeless tyres
3. In cleaning certain electronic components
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a 1,2 and 3 only
b 4 only
c 1, 3 and 4 only
d 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

68. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implications of the creation of anti-matter?
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

69. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?
1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshirt phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space code
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c 1 ,3 and 4
d None of the above can be cited as evidence.

Answer: A

70. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth?
a. The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them toward its poles
b. Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
c. Moister in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
d. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) is correct.

Answer: A

71. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India which of the statements given below are correct?
1. Different kinds of specialised surgical instruments were in common use by 1^stcentury AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3^rdcentury AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5^thcentury AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilateral was known in 7^thcentury AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b 3 and 4 only
c 1, 3 and 4 only
d 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

72. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
Select the correct answers using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

73. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2,3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

74. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the
a. three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent.
b. Three main linguistic divisions in to which the languages of India can be classified
c. three main styles of Indian temple architecture
d three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

Answer: C

75. The congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because
a. The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
b. emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
c. there wee widespread communal disturbances in their provinces.
d. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given below is correct.

Answer: D

76. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, Which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA”, trained community health workers?

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup

2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection pregnancy

3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization

4. Conducting the delivery of baby.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

77. Which of the following is/ are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.

2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims

3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

78. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

a) Different social reforms groups or organisations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/ representations to the government.

b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose

c) Behramji Malabari and M.G.Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country order one organisation.

d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct on this context.

Answer: C

79. Which of the following parties were established by DR. B. R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers party of India

2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation

3 The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

80. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners.

Answer: B

81. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve Livelihood Mission seeks to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas.

2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skills development

3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost of farmers.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

82. The Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level

2. Purchasing power parity at national level

3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

83. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services package linked to adherence to the proposed design.

2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend

3. Devolution of a specific share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

84. What is/ are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones

2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’

3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

85. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.

5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 3, 4 and 5 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: D

86. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932 mainly because

a) Roundtable Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations

b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion

c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award

d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Answer: C

87. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.

2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.

3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) None

Answer: A

88. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:

1. Low birth rate with low death rate

2. High birth rate with high death rate

3. High birth rate with low death rate

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 3, 2, 1

c) 2, 3, 1

d) 3, 2, 1

Answer: C

89. In India the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eighth Core Industries have combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement

2. Fertilizers

3. Natural Gas

4. Refinery products

5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 5 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer:C

90. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3. Fifth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a)      1 and 2 only

b)      3, 4 and 5 only

c)       1, 2 and 5 only

d)      1, 2, 3 4 and 5

Answer: C

91. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.

2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.

3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.

4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: C

92. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops

b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field

c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together

d) None of the above.

Answer: C

93. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.

2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.

3. Over 12% of the forest over constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

1. Arunachal Pradesh

b)   Assam

c)    Himachal Pradesh

d)   Uttarakhand

Answer: A

94.Consider the following crops of India :

1.Cow pea

2.Green gram

3.Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse , fodder and green manure?

a)      1 and 2 only

b)      2 only

c)       1 and 3 only

d)      1,2 and 3

Answer: D

95. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth

1. Air pressure and wind

1. Density of ocean water

1. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

a)      1 and 2only

b)      1,2 and 3 only

c)       1 and 4

d)      2, 3 and 4.

Answer: B

96. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujrat as

Compared to other states

2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)      1 only

b)      2 only

c)       Both 1 and 2

d)      Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

97.Consider the following crops of India:

1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is/are predominantly rained crop/crops?

a)      1 and 2 only

b)      2 and 3 only

c)       3 only

d)      1,2 and 3

Answer:D

98.When you travel in Himalayas,you will see the foll. :

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for the Himalayas being young fold mountains?

a)      1 and 2 only

b)      1, 2 and 4 only

c)       3 and 4 only

d)      1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:D

99. Normally the temp. Decreases with the increase in height from the earth’s surface, because

1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface

2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere

3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a)      1 only

b)      2 and 3 only

c)       1 and 3 only

d)      1, 2,3

Answer:A

100. The acidification of oceans is increasing . why is this phenomenon a cause of concern ?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected

2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected

3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplankton larvae will be adversely affected

4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected

Which of the statements are correct?

a)      1, 2 and 3 only

b)      2 only

c)       1 and 3only

d)      1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

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Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage I

The poor especially in market economics need the strength that collectivities offer for creating more economic, social and political space for themselves, for enhancing their socio-economic well-being and voice, and as a protection against free market individualism. It has been argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural production collectivities, offers substantial scope for poverty alleviation and empowering the poor as well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would need to be voluntary in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in work sharing and benefit distribution. There are many notable examples of such collectivities to be found in varied contexts, such as in transitions economies. All of them bear witness to the possibility of successful cooperation under given conditions. And although the gender impact of the family cooperatives in the transition economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women.

1. Agricultural collectivities such as group based farming can provide the rural poor

1. Empowerment

2. Increased agricultural productivity.

3. Safeguard against exploitative markets.

4. Surplus production of agricultural commodities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

ANSWER: b

2. What does the author imply by “gender impact”?

a) Women are doubtful participants in cooperatives.

b) Family cooperatives may not include women

c) Women benefitting from group farming.

d) Women’s role in transition economies is highly restrictive.

ANSWER: c

3. Consider the following assumptions:

1. It is imperative for transition economies to have agricultural collectivities.

2. Agricultural productivity can be increased by group approach to farming.

With reference to the above passage which of these assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: b

Passage II

In a typical Western liberal context, deepening of democracy invariably leads to consolidation of ‘liberal values’. In the Indian context, democratization is translated into greater involvement of people not as ‘individuals’ which is a staple to liberal discourse, but as communities or groups. Individuals are getting involved in the public sphere not as ‘atomized’ individuals but as members of primordial communities drawn on religious or caste identity. Community-identity seems to be the governing force. It is not therefore surprising that the so-called peripheral groups continue to maintain their identities with reference to the social groups {caste, religion or sect} to which they belong while getting involved in the political processes despite the fact that their political goals remain more or less identical.  By helping to articulate the political voice of the marginalized, democracy in India has led to ‘a loosening of social strictures’ and empowered the peripherals to be confident of their ability to improve the socio economic conditions in which they are placed. This is a significant political process that had led to a silent revolution through a meaningful transfer of power from the upper caste cities to various subaltern groups within the democratic framework of public governance.

4. According to the passage, what does “deepening of democracy” mean in the Western context?

a) Consolidation of group and class identities.

b) Democratization translated as greater involvement of people.

c) Democratization as greater involvement of ‘atomized’ individuals in the public sphere.

d) None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct in this context.

ANSWER: d

5. Greater democratization in India has not necessarily led to

a) The dilution of caste and communal identities in the public sphere.

b) Irrelevance of community identity as governing force in Indian politics.

c) Marginalization of elite groups in society.

d) Relative unimportance of hereditary identities over class identities.

ANSWER: b

6. What is the “silent revolution” that has occurred in the Indian democratic process?

a) Irrelevance of caste and class hierarchies in political processes

b) Loosening of social strictures in voting behavior and patterns.

c) Social change through transfer of power from upper caste elites to subaltern groups.

 d) All the statements a), b) and c) given above are correct in this context.

ANSWER: c

Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow:

Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, History, Statistics, English and Mathematics have to be arranged in a week from Monday to Friday. Only one lecture can be arranged on each day. Economics cannot be scheduled on Tuesday. Guest faculty for History is available only on Tuesday. Mathematics lecture has to be schedules immediately after the day of Economics lecture. English lecture has to be scheduled immediately before the day of Economics lecture.

7. Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?

a) History

b) Economics

c) Mathematics

d) Statistics

ANSWER: d

8. Which lecture is scheduled between Statistics and English?

a) Economics

b) History

c) Mathematics

d) No lecture

ANSWER: b

9. Which lecture is the last one in the week?

a) History

b) English

c) Mathematics

d) Economics

ANSWER: c

10. Which lecture is located scheduled on Wednesday?

a) Statistics

b) Economics

c) English

d) History

ANSWER: c

11. Which lecture is scheduled before the Mathematics lecture?

a) Economics

b) History

c) Statistics

d) English

ANSWER: a

12. Two glasses of equal volume are respectively half and three-fourths filled with milk. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. Their contents are then poured into another vessel. What will be the ratio of milk to water in this vessel?

a) 1:3

b) 2:3

c)3:2

d) 5:3

ANSWER: d

13. Consider the following statements:

1. All machines consume energy
2. Electricity provides energy
3. Electrically operated machines are cheap to maintain
4. Electrically operated machines do not cause pollution.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

a) All machines are run by electric energy.

b) There is no form of energy other than electricity

c )Most machines are operated on electric energy.

d) Electrically operated machines are preferable to use.

ANSWER: d

14. Examine the following statements:

1. None but the rich ran afford air-travel.
2. Some of those who travel by air become sick
3. Some of those who become sick require treatment

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) All the rich persons travel by air.

b) Those who travel by air become sick

c) All the rich persons become sick.

d) All those who travel by air are rich

ANSWER: d

15. In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has to go up to meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equally friendly to all, and has to go up as frequently as go down. The engineer has to go up to meet his MLA friend above whose flat lives the professor’s friend.

From the ground floor to the top floor, in what order do the five professionals live?

a) Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA

b) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA

c) IAS officer, Engineer, Doctor, Professor, MLA

d) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS officer

ANSWER: d

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage I

Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as ‘what is the purpose of education?’. The answers, too often, are ‘to acquire qualifications for employment/upward mobility’, ‘wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities’, and ‘to meet the needs for trained human power in diverse field for national development’. But in its deepest sense education is not instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity to be acquired or possessed and then used, but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and does have enormous use value. Education then, is a process of expansion and conversion, not in the sense of conversion turning students into doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the mind – the creation, sustenance and development of self-critical awareness and independence of thought. It is an inner process of moral-intellectual development.

16. What do you understand by the ‘instrumentalist’ view of education?

a) Education is functional and utilitarian in its purposes.

b) Education is meant to fulfill human needs

c) The purpose of education is to train the human intellect

d) Education is meant to achieve moral development

ANSWER: b

17. According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because

a) It helps to acquire qualifications for employment.

b) It helps in upward mobility and acquiring social status.

c) It is an inner process of moral and intellectual development

d) All the a), b) and c) given above are correct in this context.

ANSWER: c

18. Education is a process in which

a) Students are converted into trained professionals.

b) Opportunities for higher income are generated

c) individuals develop self-critical awareness and independence of thought

d) qualifications for upward mobility are acquired

ANSWER: c

Passage II

Chemical pesticides lose their role in sustainable agriculture if the pests evolve resistance. The evolution of the pesticide resistance is simply natural selection in action. It is almost certain to occur when vast numbers of a genetically variable population are killed. One or a few individuals may be unusually resistant (perhaps because they possess an enzyme that can detoxify the pesticide). If the pesticide is applied repeatedly, each successive generation of the pest will contain a larger proportion of resistant individuals. Pests typically have a high intrinsic rate of reproduction, and so a few individuals in one generation may give rise to hundreds or thousands in the next, and resistance spreads very rapidly in a population.

This problem was often ignored in the past, even though the first case of DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) resistance was reported as early as 1946. There is an exponential increase in the numbers of invertebrates that have evolved resistance and in the number pesticides against which resistance has evolved. Resistance has been recorded in every family of arthropod pests (including dipterans such as mosquitoes and house flies, as well as beetles, moths, wasps, fleas, lice and mites) as well as in weeds and plant pathogens. Take the Alabama leaf worm, a moth pest of cotton, as an example. It has developed resistance in one or more regions of the world to aldrin, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, lindane and toxaphene.

If chemical pesticides brought nothing but problems, – if their use was intrinsically and acutely unsustainable – then they would already have fallen out of widespread use. This has not happened. Instead, their rate of production has increased rapidly. The ratio of cost to benefit for the individual agricultural producer has remained in favour of pesticide use. In the USA, insecticides have been estimated to benefit the agricultural products to the tune of around $5 for every $1 spent.

Moreover, in many poorer countries, the prospect of imminent mass starvation, or of an epidemic disease, are so frightening that the social and health costs of using pesticides have to be ignored. In general the use of pesticides is justified by objective measures such as ‘lives saved’, ‘economic efficiency of food production’ and ‘total food produced’. In these very fundamental senses, their use may be described as sustainable. In practice, sustainability depends on continually developing new pesticides that keep at least one step ahead of the pests – pesticides that are less persistent, biodegradable and more accurately targeted at the pests.

19. “The evolution of pesticide resistance is natural selection in action.” What does it actually imply?

a) It is very natural for many organisms to have pesticide resistance.

b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon.

c) Some individuals in any given population show resistance after the application of pesticides

d) None of the statements a), b) and c) given above is correct.

ANSWER: c

20. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

1. Use of chemical pesticides has become imperative in all the poor countries of the world.
2. Chemical pesticides should not have any role in sustainable agriculture
3. One pest can develop resistance to many pesticides

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: b

21. Though the problems associated with the use of chemical pesticides is known for a long time, their widespread use has not waned. Why?

a) Alternatives to chemical pesticides do not exist at all.

b) New pesticides are not invented at all.

c) Pesticides are biodegradable.

d) None of the statements a), b) and c) given above is correct.

ANSWER: d

22. How do pesticides act as agents for the selection of resistant individuals in any pest population?

1. It is possible that in a pest population the individuals will behave differently due to their genetic makeup.
2. Pests do possess the ability to detoxify the pesticides.
3. Evolution of pesticide resistance is equally distributed in pest population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: a

23. Why is the use of chemical pesticides generally justified by giving the examples of poor and developing countries?

1. Developed countries can afford to do away with use of pesticides by adapting to organic farming, but it is imperative for poor and developing countries to use chemical pesticides.
2. In poor and developing countries, the pesticide addresses the problem of epidemic diseases of crops and eases the food problem.
3. The social and health costs of pesticide use are generally ignored in poor and developing countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: c

24. What does the passage imply?

a) Alternative options to chemical pesticides should be promoted.

b) Too much use of chemicals is not good for the ecosystem.

c) There is no scope for the improvement of pesticides and making their use sustainable

d) Both the statements a) and b) above are correct.

ANSWER: a

Passage III

Today’s developing economies use much less energy per capita than developed countries such as the United State did at similar incomes, showing the potential for lower-carbon growth. Adaptation and mitigation need to be integrated into a climate-smart development strategy that increases resilience, reduces the threat of further global warming, and improves development outcomes. Adaptation and mitigation measures can advance development, and prosperity can raise incomes and foster better institutions. A healthier population living in better – built houses and with access to bank loans and social security is better equipped to deal with a changing climate and its consequences. Advancing robust, resilient development policies that promote adaptation is needed today because changes is the climate, already begun, will increase even in the short term.

The spread of economic prosperity has always been intertwined with adaptation to changing ecological conditions. But as growth has altered the environment and as environmental change has accelerated, sustaining growth and adaptability demands greater capacity to understand our environment, generate new adaptive technologies and practices, and diffuse them widely. As economic historians have explained, much of humankind’s creative potential has directed at adapting to the changing world. But adaptation cannot cope with all the impacts related to climate change, especially as larger changes unfold in the long term.

Countries cannot grow out of harm’s way fast enough to match the changing climate. And some growth strategies, whether driven by the government or the market, can also add to vulnerability – particularly if they over exploit natural resources. Under the Soviet development plan, irrigated cotton cultivation expanded in water-stressed Central Asia and led to the near disappearance of the Aral Sea, threatening the livelihoods of fishermen, herders and farmers. And clearing mangroves- the natural coastal buffers against storm surges – to make way for intensive farming or housing development, increases the physical vulnerability of coastal settlements, whether in Guinea or in Louisiana.

25. Which of the following conditions of growth can add to vulnerability?

1. When the growth occurs due to excessive exploitation of mineral resources and forests
2. When the growth brings about a change in humankind’s creative potential.
3. When the growth is envisaged only for providing houses and social security to the people.
4. When the growth occurs due to emphasis on farming only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: a

26. What does low-carbon growth imply in the present context?

1. More emphasis on the use of renewable sources of energy.
2. Less emphasis on manufacturing sector and more emphasis on agricultural sector.
3. Switching over from monoculture practices to mixed farming
4. Less demand for goods and services.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) None of the above implies low-carbon growth

ANSWER: d

27. Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the sustainable economic growth?

1. Spreading of economic prosperity more.
2. Popularizing/spreading of adaptive technologies widely
3. Investing on research in adaptation and mitigation technologies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b)2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

ANSWER: b

28. Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage?

1. Rainfed crops should not be cultivated in irrigated areas
2. Farming under water-deficient areas should not be a part of development strategy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: d

29. Consider the following assumptions:

1. Sustainable economic growth demands the use of creative potential of man.
2. Intensive agriculture can lead to ecological backlash.
3. Spread of the economic prosperity can adversely affect the ecology and environment

With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: d

30. Which one of the following statements constitutes the central theme of this passage?

a)Countries with greater economic prosperity are better equipped to deal with the consequences of climate change.

b) Adaptation and mitigation should be integrated with development strategies

c) Rapid economic growth should not be pursued by both developed and developing economies.

d) Some countries resort to over exploitation of natural resources for the sake of rapid development.

ANSWER: b

Directions for the following 11 questions:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these passages should be based on these passages only.

PASSAGE I

Invasions of exotic species into new geographical areas sometimes occur naturally without human agency. However, human actions have increased this trickle to a flood. Human caused introductions may occur either accidently or as a consequence of human transport, or intentionally but illegally to serve some private purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-for public benefit by bringing a pest under control, producing new agricultural products or providing novel recreational opportunities. Many introduced species are assimilated into communities without much obvious effect. However some have been responsible for dramatic changes to native species and native communities. For example, the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake,Boiga irregularis into Guam, an island in the pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10 endemic forest bird species to the point of extinction.

One of the major reasons for the world’s great biodiversity is the occurrence of centres of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the world are occupied by different groups of species that happen it have evolved there. If the species naturally had access to everywhere on the globe, we might expect a relatively small number of successful species to become dominant in each biome. The extent to which this homogenisation can happen naturally is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal of most species in the face of the physical barriers that exist to dispersal. By virtue of the transport opportunities offered by humans, these barriers have been breached by an ever-increasing number of exotic species. The effects of introductions have been to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into something much more homogenous.

It would be wrong, however, to conclude that introducing species to a region will inevitably cause a decline in species richness there. For example, there are numerous species of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates found in continental Europe but absent from the British Isles (many because they have so far failed to recolonize after the last glaciations).Their introduction would be likely to augment British biodiversity. The significant detrimental effect noted above arises where aggressive species provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill-equipped to deal with them.

31. With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Introduction of exotic species into new geographical areas always leads to reduced biodiversity.

b) Exotic species introduced by man into new areas have always greatly altered the native ecosystems.

c)Man is the only reason to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into more homogenous ones.

d)None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) is correct in this context.

ANSWER: d

32. Why does man introduce exotic species into new geographical areas?

1. To bread exotic species with local varieties.

2. To increase agricultural productivity.

3. for beautification and landscaping

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2and3only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: b

33. How is homogenization prevented under natural conditions?

a) Evolution of groups of species specific to local habitats.

b)Presence of oceans and mountain ranges

c)Strong adaptation of groups of specific to local physical and climatic conditions

d)All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

ANSWER: b

34. How have the human beings influenced the biodiversity?

1. By smuggling live organism

2. By building highways

3. By making ecosystems sensitive so that new species are not allowed

4. By ensuring that new species do not have major impact on local species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 2 and 4

ANSWER: a

35. What can be the impact of invasion of exotic species on an ecosystem?

1. Erosion of endemic species.

2. Change in the species composition of the community of the ecosystem

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) both 1 and 2

d) neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: c

PASSAGE II 

Most champions of democracy have been rather reticent in suggesting that democracy would itself promote development and enhancement of social welfare – they have tended to see them as good but distinctly separate and largely independent goals. The detractors of democracy, on the other hand, seemed to have been quite willing to express their diagnosis of what they see as serious tensions between democracy and development. The theorists of the practical spirit – “Make up your mind: do you want democracy, or instead, do you want development?”- often came ,at least to start with , from East Asian countries, and their voice grew in influence as several of these countries were immensely successful – through the 1970s and 1980s and even later – in promoting economic growth without pursuing democracy.

To deal with these issues we have to pay particular attention to both the content of what can be called development and to the interpretation of democracy (in particular to the respective roles of voting and of public reasoning). The assessment of development cannot be divorced from the lives that people can lead and the real freedom that they enjoy. Development can scarcely be seen merely in terms of enhancement of inanimate objects of convenience, such as a rise in the GNP (or in personal incomes), or industrialisation – important as they may be as means to the real ends. Their value must depend on what they do to the lives and freedom of the people involved, which must be central to the idea of development.

If development is understood in a broader way, with a focus on human lives, then it becomes immediately clear that the relation between development and democracy has to be seen partly in terms of their constitutive connection, rather than only through their external links. Even though the question has often been asked whether political freedom is “conductive to development”, we must not miss the crucial that political liberties and democratic rights are among the “constitutive components” of development does not have to be established indirectly through their contribution to the growth of GNP.

36. According to the passage, why is a serious tension perceived between democracy and development by the detractors of democracy?

a) Democracy and development are distinct and separate goals

b) Economic growth can be promoted successfully without pursuing a democratic system of governance

c) Non-democratic regimes deliver economic growth faster and far more successfully than democratic ones.

d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

ANSWER: d

37. According to the passage, what should be the ultimate assessment/aim/view of development?

a) Rise in the per capita income and industrial growth rates.

b) Improvement in the Human Development Index and GNP.

c) Rise in the savings and consumption trends.

d) Extent of real freedom that citizens enjoy.

ANSWER: b

38. What does a “constitutive” connection between democracy and development imply?

a) The relation between them has to be seen through external links.

b) Political and civil rights only can lead to economic development

c) Political liberties and democratic rights are essential elements of development.

d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

ANSWER: c

PASSAGE III

The need for Competition Law becomes more evident when foreign direct investment (FDI) is liberalised. The impact of FDI is not always pro-competitive. Very often FDI takes the form of a foreign corporation acquiring a domestic enterprise or establishing a joint venture with one. By making such an acquisition the foreign investor may substantially lessen competition and gain a dominant position in the relevant market, thus charging higher prices. Another scenario is where the affiliates of two separate multinational companies (MNCs) have been established in competition with one another in a particular developing economy, following the liberisation of FDI. Subsequently, the parent companies overseas merge. With the affiliates no longer remaining independent, competition in the host country may be artificially inflated. Most of these adverse consequences of mergers and acquisitions by MNCs can be avoided if an effective competition law is in place. Also, an economy that has implemented an effective competition law is in a better position to attract FDI than one that has not. This is not just because most MNCs are expected to be accustomed to the operation of such a law in their home countries and know how to deal with such concerns but also that MNCs expect competition authorities to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms.

39. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

1. It is desirable that the impact of Foreign Direct investment should be pro-competitive.

2. The entry of foreign investors invariably leads to the inflated prices in domestic markets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

40. According to the passage, how does a foreign investor dominate the relevant domestic market?

1. Multinational companies get accustomed to domestic laws.

2. Foreign companies establish joint ventures with domestic companies.

3. Affiliates in a particular market/sector lose their independence as their parent companies overseas merge.

4. Foreign companies lower the cost of their products as compared to that of products of domestic companies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: b

41. What is the inference from this passage?

a) Foreign investors and multinational companies always dominate domestic market.

b) It is not in the best interest of domestic economy to allow mergers company.

c) With competition law, it is easy to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms.

d) For countries with open economy Foreign Direct investment is essential for growth.

Answer: C

42. Examine the following statements:

1) I watch TV only if I am bored

2) I am never bored when I have my brother’s company.

3) Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along.

Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?

a) If I am bored I watch TV

b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company.

c) If I am not with my brother, than i’ll watch TV.

d) If I am not bored I do not watch TV.

Answer: D

43. Only six roads A, B, C, P, Q and R connect a military camp to the rest of the country. Only one out of A, P, and R are open at any one time. If B is closed so is Q. Only one of A & B is open during storms. P is closed during floods. In the context, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Under normal conditions only three roads are open.

b) During storms at least one road is open.

c) During floods only three roads are open

d) During calamities all roads are closed

Answer: B

44. Examine the following statements:

1. None but students are the members of the club.

2. Some members of the club are married.

3. All married persons are invited for dance.

Which one of the conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) All students are invited for dance

b) All married students are invited for dance

c) All members of the club are married person

d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn

Answer: B

45. Four political parties W, X, Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the coming parliamentary elections. The formula agreed by them was the acceptance of a candidate of the most of the parties. For aspiring candidates A, B, C and D approached the parties for their ticket.

A was acceptable to W but not Z

B was acceptable to Y but not X

C was acceptable to W and Y

D was acceptable to W and X

When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X and Z and candidate A was acceptable to X but not Y: Who got the ticket?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

Answer: C

46. Consider the following statements:

1. All X-brand cars parked here are white.

2. Some of them have radial tyres

3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres are parked here.

4. All cars are not X-brand.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) Only white cars are parked here.

b) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.

c) Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.

d) Most of the X-brand cars are manufactured before 1986.

Answer: B

47. Consider the following statements:

The Third World War, if it ever starts will end very quickly with possible end of civilization. It is only the misuse of nuclear power which will trigger it.

Based on the above statement which one of the following inferences is correct?

a) Nuclear power will be used in Third World War.

b) There will be no civilization left after the third world war.

c) The growth of nuclear power will destroy civilization in the long run.

d) The third world war will not take place.

Answer: A

 48. Figures given below are changing with certain rules as we observe them from left to right:

According to this rule which of the following would be the next figure if the changes were made in the same rule?

ANSWER: D

49. Consider the following information regarding the performance of class of 1000 students in four different tests:

If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is her performance the best comparatively?

a) Test I

b) Test II

c) Test III

d) Test IV

Answer: B

50. Six squares are coloured, front and back, red(R), blue(B), yellow (Y), green (G), white (W), orange (O) and are hinged together as shown in the figure given below. If they were folded to form a cube what would be the face opposite to white face?

a) R

b) G

c) B

d) O

ANSWER: C

51.

In the above figure, circle P represents hardworking people, circle Q represents intelligent people, Circle R represents truthful people and circle S represents honest people. Which region represents the people who are intelligent, honest and truthful but not hardworking?

a) 6

b) 7

c) 8

d) 11

ANSWER: A

52. Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below:

What is letter opposite to A?

a) H

b) P

c) B

d) M

ANSWER: A

53.

Which one of the figures shown below occupies the blank space(?) in the matrix given below?

Answer: D

54. Consider the following statements:

1. All artists are whimsical.

2. Some artists are drug addicts.

3. Frustrated people are prone to become drug addicts.

From the above three statements it may be concluded that:

a) Artists are frustrated

b) Some drug addicts are whimsical

c) All frustrated people are drug addicts.

d) Whimsical people are generally frustrated

Answer: B

55. Examine the following statements:

1. Either A & B are of same age or A is older than B
2. Either C & D are of same age or D is older than C
3. B is older than C

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a. A is older than B

b. B and D are of the same age

c. Dis older than C

d. A is older than C

Answer: D

56. Examine the following statements:

1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars can become the member of the birdwatcher’s club.
2. Some members of the birdwatcher’s club have cameras.
3. Those members who have cameras can take part in photo-contests.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

a) All those who have a pair of binoculars are members of the birdwatcher’s club.

b) All members of the birdwatcher’s club have a pair of binoculars.

c) All those who take part in photo-contests are members of the birdwatcher’s club.

d) No conclusion can be drawn.

Answer: B

57. During the summer vacation Ankit went to a summer camp where he took part in hiking, swimming and boating. This summer, he is looking forward to a music camp where he hopes to sing, dance and learn to play the guitar.

Based on the above information four conclusions as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?

a) Ankit’s parents want him to play guitar.

b) Ankit prefers music to outdoor activities.

c) Ankit goes to some type of camp every summer.

d) Ankit likes to sing and dance

Answer: D

58. Three persons A, B & C wear shirts of Black, Blue and Orange colours (not necessarily in the order). No person wore shirt and pant of the same colour. Further, it is given that,

1. A did not wear shirt of black colour.
2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour.
3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour.
4. A did not wear the pants of green colour
5. B wore pants of orange colour.

What were the colours of the pants and shirts worn by C respectively?

a) Orange and black

b) Green and blue

c) Yellow and blue

d) Yellow and black

Answer: B

59. Ten new TV shows started in January- 5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news magazines. By April, only seven of the new shows were still on, five of them being sitcoms.

Based on the above information, for conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which of these logically follows from the information given above?

a) Only one news magazine show is still going on.

b) Only one of the drama show is still going on.

c) At least one discontinued show was a drama.

d) Viewers prefer sitcoms over drama.

Answer: C

60. Read the passage given below and the two statements that follow (given on the basis of the passage):

Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and other two are businessman. Two speak Gaujarati and two speak Tamil. No two of the same profession speak the same language. Two are Muslims and two are Christians. No two of the same religion are of the same profession, nor do they speak same language. The Tamil speaking doctor is Christian.

1. The Christian-Businessman speaks Gujarati.
2. The Gujarati-speaking doctor is a Muslim.

Which of the above statements is/are correct conclusion/conclusions?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

61. Consider the following statement:

“Though quite expensive, television is not a luxury item, as one can learn many things through television”.

Which of the following is the valid inference from the above given statement?

a) All expensive things are regarded as luxury.

b) All essential things for learning are not luxury.

c) Television is essential for learning.

d) Television is not a luxury item.

Answer: B

62. Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48km/hr. The time taken to cover the first 60% of the distance is 10 minutes more than the time taken to cover the remaining distance. How far is his office?

a) 30km

b) 40km

c) 45km

d) 48km

Answer: B

63. Gita is prettier than Sita but not as pretty as Rita. Then,

a) Sita is not as pretty as Gita

b) Sita is prettier than Rita

c) Rita is not as pretty as Gita

d) Gita is prettier than Rita

Answer: A

64. Given that,

1. A is the brother of B
2. C is the father of A.
3. D is brother of E.
4. E is the daughter of B

Then, the uncle of D is?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) E

Answer: A

65. Examine the following statements:

1. Rama scored more than Rani

2. Rani scored less than Ratna

3. Ratna scored more than Rama

4. Padma scored more than Rama but less than Ratna.

Who scored the highest?

a) Rama

b) Padma

c) Rani

d) Ratna

Answer: D

Directions for the following eight items:

The following eight items (questions 66 to 73) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of the English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each item and answer the items that follow.

Passage-1

For fourteen and half months I lived in my little cell or room in Dehradun jail, and I began to feel as if I was almost a part of it. I was familiar with every bit of it, I knew every mark and dent on the whitewashed walls and on the uneven floors and on the ceiling with the moth eaten rafters. In the little yard outside I greeted little tufts of grass and odd bits of stone as old friends. I was not alone in my cell, for several colonies of wasp and hornets lived there, and many lizards found the home behind the rafters, emerging in the evening in the search of prey.

66. Which of the following explains best the sentence in the passage “I was almost a part of it”?

a) I was not alone in the cell

b) I was familiar with every bit of the cell

c) I greeted little tufts of grass like old friends.

d) I felt quite at home in the cell

Answer: D

67. The passage attempts to describe:

a) The general conditions of the country’s jail

b) The prisoner’s capacity to notice the minute details of his surroundings

c) The prisoner’s conscious efforts to overcome the loneliness

d) The prisoner’s ability to live happily with other creatures

Answer: C

68. The author of the passage seems to suggest that

a) It is possible to adjust one-self to uncongenial surroundings.

b) The conditions in Indian prisons are not bad

c) It is not difficult to spend one’s time in prison

d) There is a need to improve the conditions in our jails.

Answer: A

Passage-2

We started pitching the highest camp that has been ever made. Everything took five times as long as it would have taken in the place where there was enough air to breathe; but at last we got tent up, and when we crawled in, it was not too bad. There was only a light wind and inside it was not too cold for us to take off our gloves. At night most climbers take off their boots; but I prefer to keep them on. Hilary, on the other hand took his off and lain them next to his sleeping bag.

69. What does the expression “pitching the highest camp” imply?

a) They reached the summit of the highest mountain in the world.

b) Those who climbed that far earlier did not pitch any camp.

c) So far nobody climbed that high.

d) They were too many climbers and needed to pitch a big camp

Answer: C

70. They took a long time to finish the work because:

a) They were very tired.

b) There was not enough air to breathe

c) It was very cold

d) It was very dark

Answer: C

71. When they crawled into the tent

a) They took off their gloves because it was not very cold

b) They could not take off their gloves because it was very cold.

c) They took of their gloves though it was very cold.

d) They did not take off their gloves though it was not very cold.

Answer: A

Passage-3

A local man, staying on the top of the floor of an old wooden house, was awakened at midnight by fire. Losing his way in the smoke-filled passage, he missed the stairway and went into another room. He picked a bundle to protect his face from fire and immediately fell through the floor below where he managed to escape through a clear doorway. The “bundle” proved to be the baby of the Mayor’s wife. The “hero” was congratulated.

72. The man went to another room because

a) He did not know where the stairway was

b) The passage was full of smoke

c) He was extremely nervous

d) He stumbled on bundle

Answer: B

73. The man was called hero because

a) Expressed his willingness to risk his life to save others

b) Managed to escape from fire

c) Showed great courage in fighting the fire.

d) Saved a life

Answer: D

Directions for the following 7(seven) items:

Given below are the seven items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response that you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.

Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these seven items.

74. You have differences of the opinion regarding the final report prepared by your subordinate that is to be submitted urgently. The subordinate is justifying the information given in the report. You would

a) Convince the subordinate that he is wrong

b) Tell him to reconsider the results

c) Revise the report on your own

d) Tell him not to justify the mistake

Answer: B

75. You are competing with your batch-mate for the prestigious award to be decided based on an oral presentation. You have been asked by the committee to finish on time. Your friend however, is allowed more than the stipulated time period.

a) Lodge a complaint to chairperson against the discrimination.

b) Not listen to any justification from the committee

c) Ask for withdrawal of your name

d) Protest and leave the place

Answer: A

76. You are handling a time bound project. During the project review meeting, you find that project is likely to get delayed due to lack of cooperation of the team members. You would,

a) Warn the team members for their non-cooperation

b) Look into the reasons for non-cooperation

c) Ask for the replacement of the team members

d) Ask for the extension of time citing reasons

Answers: B

77. You are a chairperson of a state sports committee. You have received a complaint and later it was found that an athlete in junior age category who has won a medal has crossed the age criteria by 5 days. You would…

a) Ask the screening committee for a clarification

b) Ask the athlete to return the medal

c) Ask the athlete to get an affidavit from the court declaring his/her age.

d) Ask the members of the committee for their views

Answer: A

78. You are handling a priority project and have been meeting all the deadlines and planning your leave during the project. Your immediate boss does not grant leave citing the urgency of the project. You would…

a) Proceed on leave without waiting for the sanction

b) Pretend to be sick and take leave

c) Approach higher authority to reconsider the leave application.

d) Tell the boss that it is not justified.

Answer: C

79. You are involved in setting up a water supply project in remote area. Full recovery of cost is impossible in any case. The income levels in the area are low and 25% of the population is below poverty line (BPL). When a decision has to be taken on pricing you would….

a) Recommended that the supply of water be free of charge in all respects

b) Recommended that the users pay a onetime fixed sum for installation of taps and the usage of water be free

c) Recommended that a fixed monthly charges be levied on the non-BPL families and for BPL families water should be free

d) Recommended that the users pay a charge based on the consumption of water with differentiated charges for Non-BPL and BPL families.

Answer: D

80. As a citizen you have some work with a government department. The official calls you again and again; and without directly asking you, sends out feelers for a bribe. You want to get your work done. You would…

a) Give a bribe

b) Behave as if you have not understood the feelers and persist with your application

c) Go to the higher officer for help verbally complaining about feelers.

d) Send in a formal complaint

ANSWER: D

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• Study material  (8 booklets, Updated, well researched and comprehensive Study Material)

 FEE: Rs 6000/- Fee has to be paid by DD/Cheque for the full amount favoring KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD  payable at PANIPAT  . Trust, quality and reliability – the bywords for KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD – will remain our guiding force for the Test Series – both Preliminary as well as Main Exam. We also provide model answers .

How to request:

For availing any of the above, students need to download the respective application form .

After filling the form, attach the DD/Cheque and send it to us at the address mentioned below:

KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD

B-892, SUSHANT CITY, ANSAL

PANIPAT

HARYANA

Helpline: 08607570992, 09728926678
We would take around 5 days to deliver the material (or 1st installment, if applicable) in India from the day we receive your DD/cheque.

FOR ANY POSTAL MATERIAL RELATED QUERY OR TO KNOW THE STATUS OF MATERIAL REQUESTED, KINDLY SEND EMAIL US kushmandaeducation@gmail.com

Or call us 08607570992,09728926678

DOWNLAOD FORM

The post CSAT solved paper 2012 appeared first on Kushmanda Education.

SBI Recruitment of Probationary Officers

VACANCIES:1500

ADVERTISEMENT NO. CRPD/PO/2012-13/04

RECRUITMENT OF PROBATIONARY

Applications are invited from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment as Probationary

Officers (POs) in State Bank of India.  Candidates selected are liable to be posted

anywhere in India.

OFFICERS IN STATE BANK OF INDIA

ONLINE REGISTRATION OF APPLICATION: 30.01.2013 TO 23.02.2013

PAYMENT OF FEES – ONLINE : 30.01.2013 TO 23.02.2013

PAYMENT OF FEES – OFFLINE : 01.02.2013 TO 28.02.2013

DATE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION : 28.04.2013

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA : (AS ON 01.01.2013)

(A) Essential Academic Qualifications:

Graduation in any discipline from a recognised University or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central Government.

(B) Age Limit: As on 01.01.2013

Not below 21 years and not above 30 years as on 01.01.2013 i.e candidates must have been born not earlier than 02.01.1983 and not later than 01.01.1992 (both days inclusive).

SELECTION PROCEDURE:

(a) Phase-I: Written Examination (250 marks) consisting of Objective Tests and Descriptive Test.

(i) Objective Tests (200 marks): The Objective Tests with 2 hour duration will consists of  4 Sections with 50 marks each as follows:

(a) Test of English Language (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc)

(b) Test of General Awareness, Marketing and Computers

(c) Test of Data Analysis and Interpretation

(d) Test of Reasoning (High Level)

The candidates are required to qualify in the Objective Tests by securing passing marks, in each of the tests, to be decided by the Bank on the basis of the performance of all the competing candidates taken together in each test to a minimum required level for each category

(ii) Descriptive Test (50 marks): The Descriptive Test with 1 hour duration will be of “Test of English Language (comprehension, short précis, letter writing & essay)”.

The candidates are required to qualify in the Descriptive Test by securing passing marks, to be decided by the  Bank.

Descriptive Test paper of only those candidates will be evaluated who have scored qualifying marks in the Objective Tests as stated above in (i).

(b) Phase-II: Group Discussion (20 marks) & Interview (30 marks)

The aggregate marks of candidates qualifying in both the Objective Tests and Descriptive Test will be

arranged in descending order in each category and the candidates in the order of merit, subject to 3 times the number of vacancies in each category, will be called for Group Discussion and Interview. The qualifying marks in Group Discussion & Interview will be as decided by the Bank.

(c) Final Selection:

The candidates will have to qualify both in Phase-I and Phase-II separately.

Marks secured by the candidates in the Written Test (out of 250 marks maximum) are converted to out of 75 and marks secured in Group Discussion & Interview (out of 50 marks maximum) are converted to out of 25. The final merit list is arrived at after aggregating converted marks of Written Test and GroupDiscussion & Interview out of 100 for each category. The selection will be made from the top merit ranked candidates in each category.

Results of the candidates who have qualified for Phase II and thereafter, the list of candidates finally

selected will be available on the Bank’s website. Final select list will be published in Employment News/Rozgar Samachar..

DATE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION: 28.04.2013 (SUNDAY)

For more details click on it:

SBI 1500 PROBATIONARY OFFICERS

JOIN US IMMEDIATELY:

TEST SERIES FOR SBI PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM 2013

 Paper-I(Objective test) & Paper-II(Descriptive test) :

You will get:

• Mock Test Papers ( 30 tests, expected questions with model answer format)

• Study material  (Exam oriented relevant topics )

 FEE: Rs 3500/- Fee has to be paid by DD/Cheque for the full amount favoring KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD  payable at PANIPAT  . Trust, quality and reliability – the bywords for KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD – will remain our guiding force for the Test Series. We also provide model answers .

How to request:

For availing any of the above, students need to download the respective application form.

After filling the form, attach the DD/Cheque and send it to us at the address mentioned below:

KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD

B-892, SUSHANT CITY, ANSAL

PANIPAT

HARYANA

Helpline: 08607570992, 09728926678
We would take around 5 days to deliver the material (or 1st installment, if applicable) in India from the day we receive your DD/cheque.

FOR ANY POSTAL MATERIAL RELATED QUERY OR TO KNOW THE STATUS OF MATERIAL REQUESTED, KINDLY SEND EMAIL US kushmandaeducation@gmail.com

Or call us 08607570992,09728926678

BANK FORM DOWNLOAD

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Expected New Questions for Main exam:

1.Discuss the contribution of  Prakash singh badal in the socio economic and political  development of Punjab.

2.What are main objectives of  Punjab’  “New and renewable sources of energy (NRSE) policy- 2012,”  ? In what ways will it create opportunities in the context of sustainable development in Punjab?

3.What is RCE and its major thrusts? Discuss the activities taken up by Punjab state council for science and technology.

4.What is wetland? Discuss the conservation and management of wetlands in Punjab?

5.What initiatives have been taken by the government of Punjab in order to  promote knowledge intensive sectors like biotechnology and Nanotechnology  for further growth in agriculture and agri- processing?

6.Explain the main features of state level strategy and action plan on climate change in Punjab state.

7.“Punjab is the land of opportunities to Non residents Indians/non residents Punjabis.” How far do you agree?

JOIN US IMMEDIATELY:

General Studies Paper-I & Paper-II TEST SERIES:

You will get:

• Mock Test Papers ( 30 tests, expected questions with model answer format)

• Study material  (Exam oriented relevant topics )

 FEE: Rs 6000/- Fee has to be paid by DD/Cheque for the full amount favoring KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD  payable at PANIPAT  . Trust, quality and reliability – the bywords for KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD – will remain our guiding force for the Test Series – both Preliminary as well as Main Exam. We also provide model answers .

How to request:

For availing any of the above, students need to download the respective application form from

After filling the form, attach the DD/Cheque and send it to us at the address mentioned below:

KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD

B-892, SUSHANT CITY, ANSAL

PANIPAT

HARYANA

Helpline: 08607570992, 09728926678
We would take around 5 days to deliver the material (or 1st installment, if applicable) in India from the day we receive your DD/cheque.

FOR ANY POSTAL MATERIAL RELATED QUERY OR TO KNOW THE STATUS OF MATERIAL REQUESTED, KINDLY SEND EMAIL US kushmandaeducation@gmail.com

Or call us 08607570992,09728926678

PUNJAB-FORM

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Expected Essays 2013  for Punjab PCS Main EXAM/HCS MAIN EXAM

1. JUDICIAL ACCOUNTABILITY

2. CAPITAL PUNISHMENT FOR RAPE

3. ILLITERACY AND VOTING RIGHTS

4. INDIA’S RESERVATION POLICY: AFTER SIXTY YEARS

5. INDIA’S SPACE PROGRAMME

6.INDIA IS A RICH COUNTRY INHABITED BY THE POORS- A PARADOX

7. HONOUR KILLING- A STIGMA ON SOCIETY

8. CORRUPTION IN PUBLIC LIFE

9. THE RIGHT TO EDUCATION

10. MEDIA AND CENSORSHIP

ESSAY WRITING TEST SERIES:

You will get:

• Mock Test Papers ( 10 tests, expected essays with model format)

• Study material  (Exam oriented relevant Essays )

 FEE: Rs 3000/- Fee has to be paid by DD/Cheque for the full amount favoring KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD  payable at PANIPAT  . Trust, quality and reliability – the bywords for KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD – will remain our guiding force for the Test Series – both Preliminary as well as Main Exam. We also provide model answers for all essay papers.

How to request:

For availing any of the above, students need to download the respective application form from

After filling the form, attach the DD/Cheque and send it to us at the address mentioned below:

KUSHMANDA EDUCATION SERVICES PVT LTD

B-892, SUSHANT CITY, ANSAL

PANIPAT

HARYANA

Helpline: 08607570992, 09728926678
We would take around 5 days to deliver the material (or 1st installment, if applicable) in India from the day we receive your DD/cheque.

FOR ANY POSTAL MATERIAL RELATED QUERY OR TO KNOW THE STATUS OF MATERIAL REQUESTED, KINDLY SEND EMAIL US kushmandaeducation@gmail.com

Or call us 08607570992,09728926678

PUNJAB FORM

The post Expected ESSAYS appeared first on Kushmanda Education.

Dena Bank Recruitment 2013 – Apply Online for 482 Specialist Officers: Dena Bank invites applications for recruitment to the post of 482 Specialist Officers in Junior Management Scale I & Middle Management Grade Scale II.

How to apply: Eligible candidates can apply online through the website www.denabank.com from 21-01-2013 to 04-02-2013. No other mode of applications will be accepted

Important Dates:

Starting Date for Online Application: 21-01-2013
Last Date for Online Application:  04-02-2013
Payment of Application fee: 21-01-2013 to 04-02-2013
Date of Written Examination(For Sr. No. 8 to 12 & 14 posts): 24-03-2013
Call Letter Download from: 11-03-2013.

Dena Bank Vacancy Details: 

Total No of Posts: 482
Name of the Post:
IBPS Based Posts:
1. Agriculture Officer- 201 Posts
2. Personnel Officer-14 Posts
3. Officer (IT)-70 Posts
4. Officer (Legal)-06 Posts
5. Rajbhasha Adhikari-11 Posts
6. Civil Engineer – 03 Posts
7. Electrical Engineer- 02 Posts
Directly from Open Competition:
8. Officer ( IT – CISA) -08 Posts
9. Officer ( Credit/FA) – 100 Posts
10. Officer ( Forex) -36 Posts
11. Officer ( MIS/Economics) – 04 Posts
12. Architect -01 Post
13. Fire Officer -02 Posts
14. CA/ICWA -10 Posts
15. Security Officer -14 Posts

Age Limit: Candidates age should be between 20 years to 40 years for post 14 & 15, up to 35 years as on 01-01-2013 for all remaining posts. Age relaxation is applicable as per rules.

Educational Qualification: Candidates must possess B.Tech /BE/B.Sc/M.Com/MBA/M.Sc/PGDM with relevant specialization from any national Institution/ University as per the post. For post wise details refer to the notification.

IBPS Score Card (CWE) Details: Candidates should have valid IBPS score card obtained in Common Written Examination (CWE) for Specialist Officers (for Serial No 1 to 7 posts). For post wise cut-off marks on Total weighted Standard Score refer to the notification.

Application Fee: Candidates need to pay the fee Rs.100/- for Gen/OBC Candidates (Rs. 20/- for SC/ST Candidates) for Post Code 01 to 07, Rs. 400/- for Gen/OBC Candidates (Rs. 50/- for SC/ST Candidates) for Post Code 08 to 15 .Candidates can download the Challan from the website .Fee can be paid through Bank Challan at nearest Dena Bank Branches in CBS Account NO. 116211021168 with Corporate Business Branch, BKC, Mumbai – 51 in the name & style of “Dena Bank SPO Rectt – 2013” or through NEFT.

Selection Process: Candidates will be selected based on Interview only for Post Code 01 to 07 and 13 & 15 and for remaining posts selection will be done on the basis of Written Test and Interview.

Instructions for Online Application:
1. Log on to the website www.denabank.com .
2. Click on the “Recruitment” link. Thereafter open the recruitment Notification “Dena Bank SPO Rectt – 2013”
3. Take a Print of the entire ‘ FEES PAYMENT CHALLAN’ and pay the application fee as mentioned above.
4. Now revisit the website and click on the link ‘Apply Online’
5. Fill all the details in the online application form and the complete Challan details.
6. Click ‘Submit’ link. After successful submission, take the print out of the application and retain it for any further assistance & fee receipt which has to be submitted with the call letter at the time of interview.

For more details like age limit, educational qualifications, no of vacancies & other information CLICK On below:

DENA BANK RECROITMENT FULL DETAILS

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HCS (Executive Branch) & Other Allied Services Preliminary Exam 2011

Solved paper of Indian History held on 25th March 2012

SERIES-C

HCS INDIAN HISTORY ANSWER KEY

1.  The tribal leader who was regarded as an incarnation of God and Father of the world (Dharti Aba)

was:

a) Kanhu Santha

b) Rupa Naik

c) Birsa Munda

d) None of the above

2.  Which of the following was leader of Waliullahi (Wahabi) movement ?

a) Syed Ahmed of Rae Bareily

b) Waliulla

c) Muhammad Abdul Wahab

d) None of the above

3.   In which of the following battles with the Sikhs did the Partisans of the holy was suffer a terrible

defeat in which Syed Ahmad lost his life ?

a) The battle of Amritsar

b) The battle of Charsadda

c) The battle of Balkot

d) None of the above

4.  The most fearless and bold woman leader of the Peasant movement, who sacrificed her life to

protect peasants rights was :

a) Ambika Chakraborthy

b) Snehlata Wadekar

c) Veera Gunamma

d) None of the above

5.  Which of the following statements about “Lokahitwadi” is not correct?

a) He attributed the social decline and decay of India to the neglect of the Sciences and learning

b) He attacked traditional religious beliefs and customs

c) He attributed to the poverty of India to the Laziness and decline in the morals of the  Indians

d) Not any specific list

6.  Which of the following theistic philosophy did MG Ranade approve of ?

a) Mysticism

b) Vedanism

c) Bhakticult

d) None of the above

7.  Which of the following tasks was closest to the heart of Syed Ahmad Khan ?

a) Religious reinterpretation

b) Social reform

c) Promotion of modern education

d) None of the above

8.  Two greatest Pioneers in the cause of widow’s education were :

a) D.K. Karve and Pandita Ramabai

b) M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bahndrarkar

c) Ishwar Chand Vidyasagar and Keshav Chandra Sen

d) None of the above

9.  After the Surat Split in 1907, the second in the Congress took place in 1918 on the issue of :

a) Lucknow Pact

b) Montagu declaration

c) Election of Mrs. Annie Besant as President of the INC (1917)

d) None of the above

10. Which of the following revolutionary and terrorist organizations had a large number of young

women revolutionaries?

a) Yugantar

b) Anushilan Samiti

c) Bharat Mata Society

d) None of the above

11. Under whose leadership was the Chittagong Armoury Raid organised ?

a) Jatin Das

b) Surya Sen

c) Ganesh Ghosh

d) None of the above

12. Proficiency in which of the following games was rewarded and recognised by state of Vijayanagar?

a) Chess

b) Wrestling

c) Gymnastics

d) None of the above

13. The first Mughal emperor to organise some sorts of Distress relief during famines was?

a) Akbar

b) Jahangir

c) Shahjahan

d) None of the above

14. The only son of Ashoka found mentioned in his inscriptions is :

a) Tivara

b) Mahendra

c) Kunala

d) None of the above

15. During the Mauryan times the royal Houses were mostly built of:

a) Baked bricks

b) Wood

c) Mud & Tile

d) None of the above

16. The status of which of the following could be said to have somewhat improved during the

Mauryan Period ?

a) Kshatriyas

b) Vaishyas

c) Shudras

d) None of the above

17. The largest single source of income to the chola state was:

a) Land tax

b) Toll on trade

c) Taxes on professions, mines and forests

d) None of the above

18. The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was pronounced by:

a) J.L. Nehru

b) Dadabhai Naoroji

c) R.C. Dutt

d) None of the above

19. The Vijaynagar King, Krishnadev Raya’s work ‘Amuktamalyada’ was in :

a) Telgu

b) Sanskrit

c) Tamil

d) None of the above

20. The victories of Karikala are well portrayed in :

a) Palamoli

b) Aruvanad

c) Pattinappaalai

d) None of the above

21. Todarmal was associated with :

a) Music

b) Literature

c) Land Revenue Reforms

d) None of the above

22. Two of the Great Mughals wrote their own memories. They were :

a) Babar and Humayun

b) Jahangir and Shahjahan

c) Babar and Jahangir

d) None of the above

23. To which king belongs to the Lion Capital of Sarnath ?

a) Chandragupta

b) Ashoka

c) Kanishka

d) None of the above

24. The Zamindari in Mughal India was not :

a) Hereditary

b) A saleable right

c) Morgageable

d) None of the above

25. The term Khalisa in Mughal Administration signified the :

a) Land owned by emperor himself

b) Religion land grants

c) Entire imperial establishment

d) None of the above

26. Tulsidas the author of ‘Ramcharitmanas’ was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?

a) Shahjahan

b) Akbar

c) Shershah Suri

d) None of the above

27. The text of the document called ‘Mazhar’ by which Akbar assumed the role of Supreme arbiter

in the matter of religion found on :

a) Arif Quandahari’s ‘Tarikh-i-Alfi’

b) Abul Fazal’s Akbarnama

c) Nazamuddin’s ‘Tabaqat-i-Akbari’

d) None of the above

28. Tolkappiyam is associated with the:

a) First Sangam Period

b) Second Sangam Period

c) Third Sangam Period

d) None of the above

29. The Vijayanagar king who employed skilled archers of the Turkish clan and raised the fighting

capacity of hid bowmen was :

a) Bukka I

b) Devaraya I

c) Ramaraya

d) None of the above

30. The uprising of 1857 was described as first Indian war of Independence by:

a) V. D. Savarkar

b) B. G. Tilak

c) R. C. Mazumdar

d) None of the above

31. Which independent nawab of Bengal was defeated and killed by forces of East India company?

a) Siraj – ud -daula

b) Shuja – ud -daula

c) Shah Alam II

d) None of the above

32. Who introduced the system of permanent settlement also called permanent settlement in

Bengal for effective agricultural methods and productivity?

a) Lord Wellesley

b) Lord Cornwallis

c) Warren Hastings

d) None of the above

33. Which of the following newspaper was launched by Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya in 1909?

a) Free India

b) Leader

c) Independent

d) None of the above

34. Who of the following advised British East India company to seek from the Mughal Emperor

Shah Alam, a ‘sanad’ for the Diwani of Bengal?

a) Maharaja Raj Ballabh

b) Raja Daulat Ram

c) Manik Chand

d) None of the above

35. The first India ruler who joined the subsidary alliance was:

a) Nawab of Awadh

b) King of Trivancore

c) Nizam of Hyderabad

d) None of the above

36. The first Indian ruler to organize Haj Pilgrimage at the expense of the state was:

a) Alauddin Khilji

b) Aurangzeb

c) Akbar

d) None of the above

37. Which of the following territories was not affected by revolt of 1857?

a) Jhansi

b) Chittor

c) Lucknow

d) None of the above

38. The head of the committee formed by the Government to enquiry into Jallianwala bagh

Massacre was:

a) John Simon

b) General Dyer

c) Hunter

d) None of the above

39. Whom did Mahatama Gandhi called “The Patriot of the Patriots”?

a) Bhagat Singh

b) Subhash Chandra Bose

c) Sardar Patel

d) None of the above

40. The term “Dosi Hatt” was used in early medieval india for :

a) Animal Market

b) Slave Bazar

c) Kappas (Cotton) Market

d) None of the above

41. Which contemporary Mughal historian of the age of Akbar had prepared a list of Charges calling

him an enemy of Islam?

a) Abbas Khan Sarwani

b) Badauni

c) Nizamuddin Ahmad

d) None of the above

42. To whom did Sher Shah appoint to provide bed and food to Hindu travellers staying at ‘Sarais’

(rest houses)?

a) Muslims

b) Low cast hindus

c) Brahmans

d) None of the above

43. When did Aurangzeb arrive in Deccan finally to quell revolt of Maratha?

a) 1681

b) 1689

c) 1700

d) None of the above

44. Which Maratha Saint is most importantly known for social reform, national regeneration and

the rise of Maratha power?

a) Samartha Ramdas

b) Tukaram

c) Vaman Pandit

d) None of the above

45. On what condition Wellesly agreed to help Peshwas Bajirao II?

a) An underhand transaction of Rs. 15 lakh

b) His consent to the the subsidary alliance

c) His agreeing to the abolition of the office of the Peshwa after his death

d) None of the above

46. With whom did Raja Ranjit Singh conclude the treaty of Lahore in 1806 which gave him freedom

to expand north of Sutlej ?

a) Holkar of Indore

b) Scindia of Gwalior

c) East India Company

d) None of the above

47. What was the grieviest cause of discontent among soldiers before the revolt of 1857?

a) Non observation of caste distinctions

b) Question of promotion and pay

c) Absence of power and equitable procedure for discipline & control

d) None of the above

48. Who was the mastermind of bomb attack on Lord Hardinge at Chandni Chowk, Delhi in 1912?

a) Sachindranath Sanyal

b) Rasbehari Bose

c) Bhai Parmanand

d) None of the above

49. When did Gandhiji go to fast unto death for the first time?

a) At the time of riots in Delhi

b) At the time of riots in Calcutta

c) At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy

d) None of the above

50. Sir Thomas Roe was sent as the British Ambassador to the Court of :

a) Aurangzeb

b) Jahangir

c) Shahjahan

d) None of the above

51. In which of the following respects the various Harappan sites a marked uniformity?

a) Agricultural Practices

b) Crafts

c) Town Planning

d) None of the above

52.  The entry port for trade between the Indus trading centers and Mesopotamia was:

a) Elam

b) Oman

c) Bahrain

d) None of the above

53. The most common crime in Rigveda was:

a) Murder

b) Kidnapping

c) Cattle-lifting

d) None of the above

54. The ‘Jana’ during vedic period refers to:

a) District

b) Tribe

c) Villages

d) None of the above

55. What was the normal form of Government in Vedic Period ?

a) Monarchy

b) Oligarchy

c) Republic

d) None of the above

56.  Who of the following was the earliest known greek follower of Bhagavatism?

a) Megasthenes

b) Antialkidas

c) Heliodorus

d) None of the above

57. The earliest exposition of Saiva System was established by:

a) Basava

b) Lakula

c) Sankaracharya

d) None of the above

58.  Under the aegis of which of the following kings was the third Buddhist council held?

a) Ashoka

b) Kanishka

c) Menander (Milinda)

d) None of the above

59. Which of the following was first great royal patron of Buddhism?

a) Ajatashatru

b) Udayayan

c) Ashoka

d) None of the above

60. Jainism has derived its metaphysical thoughts from:

a) Buddhism

b) Arivakas

c) Samkhya Philosophy

d) None of the above

61. Jainsim was propagated in South India by:

a) Bhadrabahu

b) Gautama

c) Sudharaman

d) None of the above

62. The Asokan inscriptions and their Brahmi Script were first deciphered by:

a) Alexander Cunningham

b) Max Mullar

c) James Princep

d) None of the above

63. The key-note of Ashoka’s Policy of Dhamma was:

a) Toleration and General Behaviour

b) Charity

c) Moderation

d) None of the above

64. In the Mauryan Period tax evasion was punished with:

a) Death

b) Confiscation of goods

c) Imprisonment

d) None of the above

65. The famous Queen’s Edict (Minor Pillar Edict-IV) inscribed on a pillar at Allahabad was

issued by Ashoka’s queen:

a) Vedisa Mahadevi

b) Asandhamitra

c) Karuvaki

d) None of the above

66. Kautilya’s Arthashastra’s chapter on Kantak-Shodhana is mostly devoted to:

a) Regulation of profits, wages and prices

b) Regulation against adulteration of goods

c) Strict control of artisans and traders by the state

d) None of the above

67. An early ancient Indian city, which was a nodal point for trade routes from east to west

and from North to South, was:

a) Mathura

b) Vidisha

c) Ujjain

d) None of the above

68. In the Mauryan Government women could be employed as:

a) Royal Bodyguards

b) Superintendents of weaving establishments

c) Intelligence agents & spices

d) All the above

69. Which one of the following rulling dynasties of South India was the biggest rival of the Cholas?

a) The Pandyas

b) The Chalukyas of Kalyani

c) The Gangas of Orissa

d) None of the above

70. Who of the following Chola kings assumed the title of the Mummadi Chola?

a) Vijayalaya

b) Rajaraya

c) Rajendra I

d) None of the above

71. In the Chola kingdom, a very large village administered as a single unit was called:

a) Nadu

b) Kurram

c) Kottram

d) All the above

72. The first sultan of Delhi to issue regular currency and declare Delhi as the capital of his empire was:

a) Aram Shah

b) Iltumish

c) Nasiruddin Mahmud

d) None of the above

73. From the death of Iltumish till the accession of Balban the actual power was wielded by:

a) The army

b) The nobility

c) The theologians

d) None of the above

74. In a formal sense, which of the following correctly describes the nature of the state during

sultanate period in India?

a) Theocracy

b) Democracy

c) Autocracy

d) None of the above

75. During Sultanate period, the nobility of the sultanate was largely composed of:

a) Arabs

b) Afghans

c) Turks

d) None of the above

76. Who were called barids?

a) The spy reporters

b) The king’s bodyguards

c) The officers in-charge of accounts and receipts

d) None of the above

77. The South India ruler whose kingdom could not be annexed to sultanate of Delhi by the Tughlaq?

a) Yadavas of Devagiri

b) Kakatiyas of Warangal

c) Hoysalas of Dwarasumudra

d) None of the above

78. Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the :

a) Sangama dynasty

b) Saluva dynasty

c) Tuluva dynasty

d) None of the above

79. Which of the following crops in Vijayanagar empire was widely exported?

a) Black Pepper

b) Tea

c) Tobacco

d) None of the above

80. With the construction of which of the following buildings of Mandu is the name of

Mahmud Khilji not associated?

a) Hindola Mahal

b) Jahaz Mahal

c) Jama Maszid

d) None of the above

81. Which of the following introduced Perso-Arabic melodies (ragas) into Indian Music?

a) Firdausi

b) Sadi

c) Amir Khusrau

d) None of the above

82. The sultan of Delhi who did not contribute to the development of composite Hindustani music was :

a) Kaiqubad

b) Alauddin Khilji

c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

d) None of the above

83. Which one of the following territories was not under the possession of the Afghans at the time of

Akbar’s accession?

a) Malwa

b) Bengal

c) Mewat

d) None of the above

84. Which one of the following province in north-west proved to be most valuable of acquisition of Akbar?

a) Kabul

b) Kashmir

c) Kandhar

d) None of the above

85. The English governor in India who was expelled by Aurangzeb was :

a) Aungier

b) Sir Jhon Child

c) Sir John Gayer

d) None of the above

86. Who called the English in Bengal ‘a company of base , quarrelling people and foul dealers’?

a) Aurangzeb

b) Shayista Khan, Mughal Governor of Bengal

c) Mir Jumla

d) None of the above

87. The chief gain to shivaji from his two raids on surat in 1664 and 1670 was:

a) Immense increase in his prestige

b) Demoralisation of the Mughal Forces

c) A loot of booty

d) None of the above

88. The most important achievement of Madhav Rao was that :

a) He stored Shah Alam II, the exiled Mughal emperor, to the Delhi throne

b) He subdued the Bhonsles of Nagpur

c) He improved the moral tone of the Marathon administration

d) None of the above

89. The Maratha Chief who did not join the alliance against the English at first and took the field

only when it was too late?

a) Holkar

b) Bhonsle

c) Gaekwar

d) None of the above

90. The Maratha navy in the Eighteenth century was developed by:

a) The Sindhias

b) The Gaikwars

c) The Angrias

d) None of the above

91. The backbone of the armies of the misls was the:

a) Infantary

b) Cavalary

c) Artillery

d) None of the above

92. In fourth Anglo Mysore war (1799), Tipu was defeated and killed, who of the following did not

get share in tipu’s territories?

a) The English

b) The Marathas

c) The Nizam

d) None of the above

93. Who of the following Nawab/Governors of Bengal concluded a treaty with the Maratha and agreed   to pay them an annual tribute as Chauth and ceded to them the revenues of a part of Orissa?

a) Marshid Qulikhan

b) Shuja-ud-din

c) Alivardi Khan

d) None of the above

94. Ahmad shah abdali or durrani was one of the nadir shah’s ablest generals. He invaded india

several times between 1748-1767. During which one of his campaigns was he defeated and

put to flight ?

a) First

b) Third

c) Fifth

d) None of the above

95. What was the prime mistake committed by siraj ud daula in his campaign against the English

in june 1756?

a) He failed to assess the real strength of the English in Bengal.

b) He was ignorant of the treachery of men in his court.

c) He let the English escape with their ships to Fulta.

d) He failed to win the support of his cousin Shakut Jang

96. After Bengal, the English secured the rights of duty free trade in the dominions of :

a) Raya of Benaras

b) Nawab of Awadh

c) The Nizam of Hyderabad

d) None of the above

97. In 1775, who reffered to the nawab of Bengal as “a Phantom, a man of straw” ?

a) Warren Hastings

b) A member of the court of Directors

c) A judge of the supreme court of Calcutta

d) None of the above

98. The ryotwari settlement was primarily introduced by British Government in ?

a) Bengal & Bihar

b) United Provinces

c) Madras & Bombay

d) None of the above

99. The trade which was virtually monopolised by the European merchants in india, was :

a) Import trade

b) Textile export

c) Export trade in Agriculture produce

d) None of the above

100. India’s growing poverty under the British rule is confirmed by :

a) Increasing frequency and Intensity of Famines

b) Increasing indebtedness of the Peasantry

c) Transfer of land from cultivating to non cultivating classes

d) None of the above

The post Indian History HCS Paper appeared first on Kushmanda Education.

HCS (Executive Branch) & Other Allied Services Preliminary Exam 2011

Solved paper of General Studies held on 25th March 2012

SERIES -C

HCS PRE 2011GENERAL STUDIES ANSWER KEY

1.  During which decade did the population record a negative growth rate in India

a) 1921-31

b) 1911-21

c) 1941-51

d) 1931-41

2.  Which Central Government Agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals?

a) The Geological Survey of India

b) Surveyor General of India

c) National Mineral Development Corporation Ltd.

d) Indian Bureau of Mines

3.  What is Gomia in Bihar famous for:

a) Coal Fields

b) Manganese Mines

c) Fertilizer Plant

d) Explosive Factory

4.  SEBI is a

a) Statutory body

b) Advisory body

c) Constitutional body

d) Non-statutory body

5.  Economic Planning is in :

a) Union List

b) State List

c) Concurrent List

d) Not any specific list

6.  Lahiri Commission was associated with

a) Indsutrial sickness

b) Minimum support prices of agriculture products

c) Price structure of edible oils

d) Handicraft export

7.  “Open Market Operation” is a part of

a) Income Policy

b) Fiscal Policy

c) Credit Policy

d) Labour Policy

8.  Which of the following is used for the measurement of distribution of income?

a) Laffer Cureve

b) Engel’s Law

c) Gini Lorenz Curve

d) Phillip Curve

9.  Automatic route to FDI implies that a foreign investor bring in his capital

1. Without the approval of the FIPB

2. By informing the RBI within one month of bringing in his investments

3. By informing both the FIPB and RBI within one month of bringing in his/her investment

4. By prior permission of the RBI

Select the correct answer from the above

a) 2 and 3

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2

d) 2 and 3     4

10. In the context of the Indian Economy consider the following pairs:

Term                                       Most appropriate description

1. Melt Down                -               Fall in Stock Prices

2. Recession                -               Fall in Growth Rate

3. Slow Down               -               Fall in GDP

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

11. In India which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Comission?

a) Currency future trading

b) Commodities future trading

c) Equity futures trading

d) Both Commodities futures and financial futures trading

12. Union Government has announced New Agriculture Policy in July 28, 2000. New Agriculturre

Policy has been described as ‘Rainbow Revolution’ which includes :

a) Green (Food Grain Production)

b) Yellow (Oil Seeds)

c) Blue (Fisheries)

d) It would cover all aspects of the farm sector

13. Sensitive sector as defined by RBI includes:

a) Capital market

b) Real Estate

c) Commodities

d) All the above

14. The RBI is the apex body of Indian Financial System, which of the following functions are

performed by the RBI?

1. Monitoring money supply in the Economy

2. Issues currency other than coins and one Rupees note.

3. Functions as Bankers Bank

4. Works as banker to the Government

Select the Code:

a) 1 & 2 are correct

b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct

c) 2, 3 & 4 are correct

d) All of above are correct

15. Aam Admi Bima Yojana is an insurance scheme for rural landless household introduced by:

a) National Insurance

b) Life Insurance Co.

c) UTI

d) ICICI Life Prudential Co.

16. In India those farmers are called ‘Marginal Farmers’ who hold land upto:

a) 1 hectare

b) 2 hectare

c) 3 hectare

d) 4 hectare

17. Which one of the following is a measurement of central tendency?

a) Median

b) Standard Deviation

c) Mean Deviation

d) Variance

18. Which one of the following is NOT a measurement of location?

a) Median

b) Mode

c) Range

d) Mean

19. Combustion of a candle is

a) Physical change

b) Reduction reaction

c) Endothermic reaction

d) Exothermic reaction

20. Pure water is obtained from the sea water by :

a) Filteration

b) Distillation

c) Evaporation

d) All the above

21. The method that cannot be used for removing permanent hardness of water is:

a) Adding Sodium Carbonate

b) Disitillation

c) Adding caustic soda

d) Boiling

22. Heavy Water :

a) Contains more dissolved air

b) Contains more dissolved minerals

c) Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen

d) Contains organic impurities

23. “Fixation of Nitrogen” implies

a) The liquification of nitrogen

b) The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usefull compounds

c) The conversion of nitrogen into amines

d) The solidification of nitrogen gas into the atmosphere

24. The pH value of the solution obtained by complete neutralization of hydrochloric and sodium

hydroxide solution will be :

a) Exactly 7

b) Zero

c) More than 7

d) Less than 7

25. Coloured glasses for goggles contain:

a) Ferrous oxide

b) Lanthanide oxide

c) Nickel oxide

d) Ferric oxide

26. Which of the following statement is NOT true for soap?

a) Soaps are bio-degradbale

b) Soaps cannot be  used in acidic medium

c) Soaps form a white curdy precipitate with hard water

d) Soaps are relatively stronger in their cleaning action than synthetic detergents

27. Which one is a viral disease:

a) Cholera

b) Typhoid

c) Rabbies

d) Whooping cough

28. Rubella virus cause:

a) Chicken pox

b) Measles

c) Small pox

d) Mumps

29. I’m tired. I’d rather __________ out this evening, if you don’t mind.

a) don’t go

b) not go

c) not going

d) not to go

30. Anthropologists are of the view that Haryana was known by his name because in

Post-Mahabharta period lived:

a) Abhiras

b) Aryans

c) Haryanvis

d) None of the above

31. According to Delhi Museum Hariana “the Heaven on the Earth” dates back to:

a) 1126 AD

b) 1328 AD

c) 1500 AD

d) 1750 AD

32. Haryana state was formed on 1 November 1966 on recommendation of:

a) Lal Bahadur Shastri

b) Indira Gandhi

c) Sardar Hukam Singh

d) Sir Chottu Ram

33. Haryana is a landlocked state lies between:

a) 28 Degree 37 Minutes to 31 Degree 35 Minutes North

b) 24 Degree 26 Minutes to 27 Degree 28 Minutes North

c) 29 Degree 20 Minutes to 31 Degree 30 Minutes North

d) 27 Degree 37 Minutes to 30 Degree 35 Minutes North

34. Population density according to 2011 census is

a) 1002 people/per sqkm

b) 642 people/per sqkm

c) 573 people/per sqkm

d) 945 people/per sqkm

35. Haryana has

a) 5682 villages

b) 6759 villages

c) 4890 villages

d) None of the above

36.  How many divisions the state is divided for Administrative purpose?

a) 5

b) 3

c) 4

d) None

37. Which of the District is not part of the Gurgaon Division?

a) Faridabad

b) Palwal

c) Hisar

d) Rewari

38. Haryana Board of School Education established in Sept. 1969 and shifted in 1981 to

a) Sonepat

b) Chandigarh

c) Bhiwani

d) Rohtak

39. Haryana has adopted New Sports Policy on:

a) 15th August 2008

b) 21st August 2009

c) 26th january 2009

d) 2nd October 2008

40. KMP stands for

a) Kurukshetra – Manesar – Panipat Expressway

b) Kundli – Manesar – Palwal Expressway

c) Kurukshetra – Manesar – Pautodi Expressway

d) Kurukshetra – Mahendragarh – Panipat Expressway

41. Haryana Industrial and Investment Policy – 2011 became effective in:

a) 1-1-2011

b) 26-1-2011

c) 15-8-2011

d) None of the above

42. Haryana Special Economic Zones Act came in existence in:

a) 2006

b) 2008

c) 2009

d) None of the above

43. Literacy rate (%) in Haryana is:

a) 70.75 percent

b) 68.60 percent

c) 62.50 percent

d) 58.25 percent

44. Arrange the sectoral growth in Haryana

a) Service   -   Agriculture   -  Industry

b) Industry  -   Service        -  Agriculture

c) Agriculture   -   Industry  -  Service

d) Service   -     Industry     -  Agriculture

45. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has been extended in the

entire Haryana from:

a) 1st January 2008

b) 1st July 2009

c) 1st January 2010

d) None of the above

46. Average Yield per hectare of Wheat and Rice during 2010-11 in Haryana is estimated at:

a) 4560kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice

b) 4500kg for Wheat and 2700 kg for rice

c) 4250kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice

d) None of the above

47. Haryana State Annual Plan for 2011-12 approved by Planning Commision, Govt. of India is:

a) Rs. 20158 Crore

b) Rs. 20258 Crore

c) Rs. 20358 Crore

d) Rs. 20458 Crore

48. Which buffalo is called as Black Gold in Haryana?

a) Bhadavari

b) Niti-Ravi

c) Mehsana

d) Murrah

49. The Haryana Special Economic Zone came in the year

a) 2005

b) 2006

c) 2007

d) 2008

50. The Haryana Government’s Land Acquisation Policy,

a) has decided to double, even higher in some areas, the minimum floor rate (MFR) payable

for acquisition of land

b) increase both the annuity amount payable over 33 years as well as its incremental annual

hike and give bigger-size plots in case one’s residential property is acquired

c) the affected farmers would alsobe offered Government jobs, industrial and commercial plots

d) All the above

51. Barents Sea in the Arctic Ocean has been controversial over the maritime boundary for 40 years

between which of the following two countries? The issue was resolved recently.

a) Russia and Norway

b) Norway and Finland

c) Finland and Russia

d) Russia and Denmark

52. Navanentham Pillay, a South African national of India origin was the first non-white women of the

High Court of South Africa. What is her current profession?

a) Judge of the International Criminal Court

b) International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda

c) United Nation High Commissioner for Human Rights

d) United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees

53.  Consider the following statement:

1. India and Japan agreed to a ‘sweeping’ liberalization of their bilateral tax regime during

PM Manmohan Singh visit to Tokyo on 27th October 2010

2. This is the first in releasing the Indo-Japanese comprehensive Economic partnership Agreement

Which of the above statement are true?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

54.  Consider the following statements about the Ayodhya verdict:

1. 60 years the matter first went in to Litigation Luknow Bench of  the High Court of Allahabad

ruled in majority judgement on 30th September 2010

2. Disputed sites to be divided into three equal parts: one part goes to Suni Wakf Board, one

to Nirmohi in Akhara and one part representing ‘Ramlalla Virajman’

3. Status quo to be maintained at disputed sites for three month

4. The bench which deleivered the much awaited verdict consisted of Justice Dharam Vir Sharma,

Justice S U Khan and Justice Sudhir Agarwal

Which of the above statement are true?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Only 3

d) All the above

55. Parliament has passed SBI (Amendment) Bill 2010 which changes the minimum level of share  of the government in SBI’s equity

a) from 51% to 55%

b) from 55% to 51%

c) from 74% to 51%

d) from 55% to 49%

56. The Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Sonia Gandhi have launched the Adhar Project under Unique Identification Authority of India at tembli in Nandurbar District. Nandurbar is in which of the  following states?

a) Gujarat

b) Maharashtra

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Tamilnadu

57. Recently UNO celebrated its 65th Anniversary on date:

a) 20th Oct 2010

b) 24th Oct 2010

c) 29th Oct 2010

d) 27th Oct 2010

58. The governement has recently announced a Rs.1052 crore incentive package for critical export

sectors including

1. Textile

2. Handicraft

3. Leather

Choose the correct answer from the below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

59.  Who will be heading the National Inovation Council which will give shape to the government’s

decision to observe the current decades ( 2000 – 2020 ) as the decade of the innovation?

a) M S Swaminathan

b) C Rangarajan

c) Narayanamurthy

d) Sam Pitroda

60. Who among the following has been honoured the United Nation’s Millennium Development Goals

Award for 2010 for their work in using innovative approaches for poverty and hunger alleviation?

a) BRIC

b) WHO

c) IBSA

d) G-20

61. Harappan people had a common burial system which is proved by:

a) The earth burial head of the dead normally laid towards the north

b) The burial of commonly used items with the dead

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) The burial of the dead body in the sitting posture

62. In Vedic Period, the people called panis, were:

a) Those who controlled trade

b) Cattle-breeders

c) Cowherds

d) Ploughmen

63. In the Vedic Age:

a) Polygamy was unknown

b) Child marriage became prominent

c) Widow could remarry

d) Hypergamy was allowed

64. Bring the correct statement regarding the first Buddhist Council:

1. Ananda and Upali laid down the Sutta Pataka and Vinaya Pitaka respectively

2. Its proceedings were conducted in Sanskrit

3. It was held during the life time of Buddha

4. Its main purpose was to maintain the purity of Buddha’s teachings

a) 1 and 4

b) All of them

c) 1 and 2

d) 2, 3 and 4

65. The sacred books of Jains are called:

a) Agama Sidhanta

b) Angas

c) Parvas

d) Upangas

66. Who founded the Lingayat Movement?

a) Basava

b) Ramanuja

c) Shankracharya

d) Kamban

67. What was Abwab?

a) Toll tax

b) religion tax such as Zakat

c) Tax on merchandise and custom duties

d) Miscellaneous kinds of taxes like the house tax, grazing tax, irrigation tax etc.

68. The term used for measurement of land in the Delgi Sutanate Period was:

a) Kismat-i-ghalla

b) Ghalla-bakshi

c) Masahat

d) Ghazi

69. The earlier Vaishnava Bhakti saints from the South were:

a) Alvars

b) Nayanars

c) Bhagavats

d) Virshaivites

70. Identify the Vijayanagar coin which were in the circulation and were the most widely recognized

currency all over:

a) Dinnar

b) Huna

c) Panam

d) Pagoda

71. Akbar did not construct:

a) Purana Quila

b) Agra Fort

c) Allahabad Fort

d) Lahore Fort

72. The main programme of the Red Sirts (Khudai Khidmatgars of Servants of God) organized by

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was

a) To proceed on the lines of terrorist and revolutionary activities

b) To propagate the Congress programme

c) To resist the military operations of the government in the north-western frontier portion

d) To setup an para-military organization

73. The result of the Poona Pact was that the number of the seats reserved for the depressed

classes out of general electorate seats were:

a) Abolished

b) Increased

c) Retained in the same level

d) Decreased

74. Cripps proposal were rejected because:

a) It refused to release all the arrested national leaders

b) of the intention to partition India

c) It suggested the formation of an interim government

d) it refused to hand over effective power to the Indians

75. Who presided over the Cabinet Mission?

a) Clement Attlee

b) Sir P Lawrence

c) Strafford Cripps

d) A V Alexander

76. The Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947) was about:

a) Guidelines for the formation of a Constitution for India by the Constituent Assembly

b) Creation of fedral government

c) A plan for controlling communal riots raising all over India at the same time

d) The method by which power was to be transferred from British to Indian hands

77. The first Muslim to be elected as President of the Indian National Congress was :

a) M A Jinnah

b) Maulana Azad

c) Baddrudin Tyabji

d) Whooping cough

78. The Non-Cooperation Movement was adopted by the Congress at a Special Session held at

________ in September 1920.

a) Bombay

b) Calcutta

c) Wardha

d) Allahabad

79. The Non-Cooperation Movement was called off by Mahatma Gandhi because :

a) of Gandhi-Irwin Pact

b) of mob-violence at Chauri-Chaura

c) the Khilafat issue fizzled out with abolition of the office of the Caliph in Turkey

d) the government accepted the demand in tow

80. Which of the following Fundamental Rights have been deleted from the Constitution through

the Constitutional Amendment?

a) Right against expolitation

b) Right of freedom of religion

c) Right of property

d) Freedom of speech and expression

81. How many Fundamental Rights are enjoyed by the Indians?

a) Nine

b) Ten

c) Seven

d) Six

82. The basic difference between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is:

a) Fundamental Rights are Positive while Directive Principles are Negative

b) Directive Principles are given precedence over the Fundamental Rights by the Court

in all the cases

c) Fundamental Rights are justifiable while Directive Principles are not

d) None of the above

83. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India has been described as the friend, philosopher and

guide of :

a) the Estimate Committee

b) the committee of the public Undertaking

c) the Public Account Committee

d) all the Parliamentary committees

84. Part -V of the Constitution deals with

a) Union executives

b) Parliamnet

c) Supreme Court and High Court

d) Comptroller and Auditor General

85. If there is a vacancy in the offices of both President and Vice-President, who has been empowered

to function as President:

a) Chief Justice of India

b) Chief of Army Staff

c) A person appointed by Parliament

d) None of these

86.  If president returns the bill to the legislature for reconsideration

a) a re-passage of the bill by the two-thirds majority will compel him to give his assent

b) a re-passage of the bill by the simple majority will compel him to give his assent

c) a joint sitting will have to be called to pass it again

d) the legislature must accept amendments proposed by the President

87. To whom does the President address the letter of resignation?

a) the Prime Minister

b) the Vice President

c) the Speaker

d) the Chief justice

88. Two houses of the Parliament enjoy co-equal power in all spheres except:

1. Financial matters

2. Responsibilities of the Council of Ministers

3. Amendment Procedure

4. Election of President

a) 3 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 1 and 2

89. Impeachment proceedings against the President of Indian can be initiated

a) by the Supreme Court

b) only in the Lok Sabha

c) in either House of the Parliament

d) only in the joint sitting of the two Houses

90. Gulf Stream the most important current of the Atlantic Ocean takes its birth from the Gulf of Mexico.

Its importance lies in :

a) Cooling effect

b) Warming effect

c) Area of influence

d) Influence on travel

91. Which of the following sub-races belong to Mongoloids?

a) Bantu

b) Eskimoid

c) Nordic

d) Alpine

92. Consider the following statements:

1. The Masai is a tribe of settled cultivators who once wondered with their herds with the cattle

in the central highlands of East Africa.

2. The cattle kept by the Masaiare the “Zebu” cattle with the humps and long horns

Which of the statement is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Neither 1 or 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Only 2

93. Which of the following are not the Pastoral Nomads?

a) Pygmies

b) Kazaks

c) Masai

d) Lapps

94. The world’s most commercial fishing grounds are located in:

a) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively higher latitudes

b) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively lower latitudes

c) Both above mentioned areas

d) A widespread area near the Poles

95. Which of the following used to be considered a buffer state?

a) France

b) Switzerland

c) Belgium

d) West Germany

96. The Australian trans-continental railway joins

a) Perth to Darwin

b) Hobart to Perth

c) Sydney to Perth

d) Adelaide to Perth

97. When did the EEC( European Economic Community) change into EU(European Union)

a) 1992

b) 1995

c) 1996

d) 1991

98. Territorial waters of India extends up to

a) 5 Nautical Miles

b) 12 Nautical Miles

c) 15 Nautical Miles

d) 2 Nautical Miles

99. Which of the following river lies in the Rift Valley?

a) Luni

b) Chambal

c) Son

d) Tapti

100. Khaddar soils are found in:

a) Piedmont Plains

b) Flood Plains

c) Over low Palteaux

d) Over Steep Slopes

The post HCS preliminary exam question paper appeared first on Kushmanda Education.

 FOR HCS MAIN EXAM/PUNJAB PCS / RAS MAIN etc

• Why did SEBI recently prohibit  companies from  trade in ESOS, ESPS shares? Discuss.
• What is PM2.5? Why it is in news recentl y  in china? Explain.
• “Public road is not anyone’s property. Each citizen had a right to use the road and that right cannot be interfered with or impeded by constructing a temple, mosque, church or gurudwara or by installing the statue of a public figure,” in the light of  this statement  discuss supreme court recent directions.
• What is “red October”? why is it in news recently?
• What are the objectives of recently introduced RBI’s Doller Rupee swap facility?
• “For speedy justice we need more judges and a more efficient work culture in the entire judicial system not just in fast track courts.” Do you agree? Explain .
• “Even petty cases are dragged for a decade, is it due to cleverness of advocates or incompetence of the judges.” Critically discuss.
• “slow justice system is very beneficial for the corrupt as so many cases never see light of day.” Explain .
• “The crux of the slow justice  problem is the quality of judges, archaic procedures, number of needless hearings and appeals.” Do you agree ? explain .
• What are the relevance of WTO in present world scenerio. discuss .

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