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Writing practice alone isn’t sufficient. Feedback from experts is crucial to identify missing dimensions like structure, depth, use of keywords, or critical analysis. Evaluation bridges the gap between preparation and actual exam performance.

Zoology being a science subject, requires a distinct evaluation approach:

• Precision of technical terms.

• Correct and labeled diagrams.

• Logical flow in explanations of biological mechanisms.

• Integration of current developments in Zoology with static concepts.

Examples:

1. A student writes about limb regeneration in amphibians without a labeled diagram – feedback should include, “Draw labeled steps of regeneration (blastema formation, dedifferentiation, etc.) to improve visual explanation.”

2. If a student defines apoptosis without mentioning caspases or role of mitochondria – feedback should note “Include caspase pathway cascade and relation with mitochondrial pore transition.”

3. For a neural transmission answer lacking synaptic delay explanation – feedback can say “Add synaptic delay explanation with vesicle docking illustration for completeness.”

Salient Features:

• 10 Full Length tests. (English&Hindi)
• Evaluators assess on parameters like relevance, structure, depth of analysis, subheading use, keyword usage, multidimensionality, innovation (diagrams, flowcharts), conclusion quality, and time-bound completeness.
• UPSC answers are not essays; they must reflect a balanced viewpoint within word/time limits. Evaluation frameworks ensure candidates develop exam-centric writing that satisfies UPSC’s demand for clarity, content, and conciseness.
• UPSC checks quality under pressure. Evaluation creates a feedback loop where every mistake becomes a lesson. The constant loop of Write → Get Feedback → Rectify → Write Again improves articulation, speed, and scoring capability.
• Focus on key metrics to ensure 300+ Marks .
• High-quality Question as per the latest pattern of UPSC.
• Robust feedback mechanism through copy evaluation in a time bound manner.
• Model Answers of all tests
• Flexible schedule, write anytime after scheduled date.
• Fee: Rs 11000/-  (Per Test Rs 1100/-)

Call: 860770992 (Discounts for EconomicallyWeaker Sections for all categories) EXAMPLE: Q: Compare and contrast the adaptive strategies in locomotion among Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca. Discuss how the underlying musculature and nervous system contribute to their locomotory efficiency in diverse habitats.

ANS: Locomotion is a critical adaptive feature that allows animals to exploit their environments effectively. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca—three major invertebrate phyla—have evolved distinct locomotory strategies based on differences in body structure, musculature, and nervous system organization. These adaptations are closely linked to their ecological niches and evolutionary pathways.

Annelida: Segmental Flexibility and Hydrostatic Skeleton

Annelids, such as earthworms and polychaetes, rely on a hydrostatic skeleton for movement. Their bodies are segmented, with each segment containing longitudinal and circular muscles. Coordinated contraction and relaxation of these muscles, along with the incompressibility of coelomic fluid, produce peristaltic waves that propel the organism forward.

In terrestrial species like earthworms, locomotion is aided by chaetae (bristle-like structures) that anchor segments temporarily to the substrate. In aquatic polychaetes, parapodia function both as locomotory and respiratory organs, facilitating swimming and crawling.

The annelid nervous system comprises a pair of ventral nerve cords with segmental ganglia, allowing precise control over each segment. This segmental autonomy enables annelids to navigate complex substrates, burrow effectively, and respond rapidly to environmental stimuli.

Arthropoda: Jointed Appendages and Exoskeletal Leverage

Arthropods, including insects, crustaceans, and arachnids, have evolved jointed appendages and an exoskeleton, which provides a rigid framework for muscle attachment and leverage. Locomotion in arthropods varies widely—from walking and jumping in insects to swimming in crustaceans and flying in advanced insects.

The musculature is striated and highly specialized, arranged in antagonistic pairs (flexors and extensors) that move appendages through articulated joints. Their segmented bodies are fused into functional units (tagmata), allowing regional specialization for locomotion.

The arthropod nervous system is highly centralized, with a brain and ventral nerve cord, as well as segmental ganglia. In insects, for instance, the thoracic ganglia control leg and wing movement, allowing highly coordinated and rapid actions like flight or escape responses.

This neuromuscular efficiency, coupled with the mechanical advantage of the exoskeleton, allows arthropods to dominate terrestrial and aquatic habitats through versatile and energy-efficient locomotion.

Mollusca: Muscular Foot and Jet Propulsion

Molluscs exhibit diverse locomotory strategies depending on the class. Gastropods (snails) use a muscular foot for creeping locomotion through waves of muscular contractions, aided by mucus secretion. Bivalves (e.g., clams) may burrow using their foot, while cephalopods (e.g., squids, octopuses) employ jet propulsion, a rapid locomotion mechanism achieved by expelling water forcefully through the siphon.

Molluscan muscles are smooth and often obliquely striated, well-suited for sustained contraction. In cephalopods, specialized mantle muscles generate the force needed for jet propulsion, enabling quick escape responses and agile swimming.

The nervous system in molluscs shows great variation. While gastropods have relatively simple nerve rings and ganglia, cephalopods possess a highly developed brain and complex neural circuits, supporting advanced motor control, learning, and sensory integration.

Conclusion

In conclusion, Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca display specialized locomotory adaptations that reflect their evolutionary history and habitat demands. Annelids use segmental coordination and hydrostatic pressure; arthropods exploit jointed limbs and exoskeletal mechanics; molluscs exhibit muscular foot movement or jet propulsion. Underlying these strategies are fundamental differences in musculature and nervous system organization, which determine their locomotory efficiency and ecological success across diverse environments.

EVALUATION OF THE ANSWER:

Question: Compare and contrast the adaptive strategies in locomotion among Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca. Discuss how the underlying musculature and nervous system contribute to their locomotory efficiency in diverse habitats.
Answer Quality: Excellent (Score: 9.5/10)
Below is a detailed evaluation based on key UPSC criteria:

1. STRUCTURE & ORGANIZATION (2/2)

• Introductory Statement is clear and sets context by linking locomotion to adaptive evolution and ecological success.

• Body is well-structured phylum-wise with separate sections: Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca.

• Conclusion synthesizes the comparison neatly.

Improvement: Could consider adding transitional connectors between paragraphs for smoother flow.

2. CONTENT ACCURACY & DEPTH (3/3)

• Accurately explains hydrostatic skeleton and segmental coordination in Annelida, jointed appendages and tagmatization in Arthropoda, and diverse molluscan strategies like jet propulsion and creeping foot.

• Neuromuscular mechanisms are deeply explored: e.g., segmental ganglia in Annelida, thoracic ganglia in Arthropods, and complex cephalopod brains.

• Appropriately covers variations within each phylum (e.g., polychaetes vs. oligochaetes; gastropods vs. cephalopods).

3. COMPARATIVE ANALYSIS (2/2)

• Maintains clear contrast between the locomotory mechanisms:

  • Hydrostatic (Annelids) vs. Exoskeletal leverage (Arthropods) vs. Muscular/jet-based (Molluscs).

• Nervous system differences are logically linked to locomotory complexity.

4. TECHNICAL TERMINOLOGY & SCIENTIFIC LANGUAGE (1.5/2)

• Strong use of terminology: chaetae, parapodia, tagmata, antagonistic muscle pairs, siphon.

• Concepts like peristalsis, coordinated muscle contraction, segmental ganglia are well-integrated.

Improvement: Could briefly mention the evolutionary constraints or trade-offs (e.g., rigidity of exoskeleton limits growth, requiring molting in arthropods).

5. VALUE ADDITION (1/1)

• Integrates examples for each group: earthworms, polychaetes, insects, squids.

• Describes ecological relevance of locomotion strategies: e.g., burrowing, escape responses, swimming.

 Final Suggestions:

• Include comparative summary in tabular form (if allowed by word limit) for even clearer distinction.

• Add 1-2 lines on how these adaptations enable survival in extreme or specific habitats (e.g., cephalopod jet propulsion in predator-rich zones).

Overall Verdict:

This is a well-structured, high-quality answer that meets UPSC Zoology optional standards. It demonstrates conceptual clarity, comparative insight, and relevance to the ecological and evolutionary context.

Score: 9.5/10
Category: Excellent – Model Answer

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Writing practice alone isn’t sufficient. Feedback from experts is crucial to identify missing dimensions like structure, depth, use of keywords, or critical analysis. Evaluation bridges the gap between preparation and actual exam performance.

EXAMPLE 1: A Political Science candidate was using GS-type language in optional answers. Evaluation sessions taught him how to include thinkers, quotes, and theorists, aligning better with the optional’s expectations.

Example 2: A PSIR student saw a topper’s answer integrating real-world examples from current affairs. He began including articles from The Hindu and Indian Express, enriching his answers.

Salient Features:

• 10 Full Length tests. (English&Hindi)
• Evaluators assess on parameters like relevance, structure, depth of analysis, subheading use, keyword usage, multidimensionality, innovation (diagrams, flowcharts), conclusion quality, and time-bound completeness.
• UPSC answers are not essays; they must reflect a balanced viewpoint within word/time limits. Evaluation frameworks ensure candidates develop exam-centric writing that satisfies UPSC’s demand for clarity, content, and conciseness.
• UPSC checks quality under pressure. Evaluation creates a feedback loop where every mistake becomes a lesson. The constant loop of Write → Get Feedback → Rectify → Write Again improves articulation, speed, and scoring capability.
• Focus on key metrics to ensure 300+ Marks in PSIR.
• High-quality Question as per the latest pattern of UPSC.
• Robust feedback mechanism through copy evaluation in a time bound manner.
• Model Answers of all tests
• Flexible schedule, write anytime after scheduled date.
• Fee: Rs 11000/-  (Per Test Rs 1100/-)

Call: 860770992 (Discounts for EconomicallyWeaker Sections for all categories)

EXAMPLE:

Q. Compare Rawlsian Justice with Amartya Sen’s capabilities approach. What are their implications for redistributive justice?

ANS: John Rawls and Amartya Sen are two of the most influential thinkers in modern political philosophy, particularly on the subject of justice. Both critique utilitarianism and advocate alternatives that prioritize fairness and human dignity. However, their approaches diverge fundamentally in both conceptual foundations and implications for redistributive justice.

Rawlsian Theory of Justice:

Rawls, in A Theory of Justice (1971), constructs a theory of “justice as fairness” using the hypothetical original position and the veil of ignorance. His two principles of justice are:

1. Equal basic liberties for all.

2. Social and economic inequalities are just only if they benefit the least advantaged (the difference principle) and are attached to positions open to all under conditions of fair equality of opportunity.

Rawls emphasizes the distribution of primary goods — income, wealth, opportunities, rights, and liberties — assuming that individuals will pursue their own life plans more effectively if these goods are distributed fairly. Justice, for Rawls, lies in establishing institutions that ensure fair access to these goods.

Amartya Sen’s Capabilities Approach:

Sen, in contrast, argues in Development as Freedom and The Idea of Justice that Rawls’ reliance on primary goods is insufficient. He introduces the capabilities approach, focusing not on what resources people possess but on what they are actually able to do and be — their capabilities and functionings. For example, two individuals with the same income may achieve vastly different outcomes due to personal, social, or environmental factors (e.g., disability, discrimination, or lack of public services).

Sen’s theory emphasizes individual freedom to achieve valuable functionings (e.g., being nourished, educated, mobile, or politically active). He criticizes Rawls for being too institution-focused and for insufficient attention to real-life differences in human diversity and social conversion factors.

Implications for Redistributive Justice:

Both theories support redistributive justice but differ in emphasis:

• Rawlsian redistribution is justified insofar as it maximizes the position of the least advantaged by equalizing the distribution of primary goods. Institutions (like taxation and welfare) must be designed to ensure that inequalities work to everyone’s advantage, especially the most vulnerable.

• Sen’s redistribution focuses more on enhancing individuals’ real freedoms — such as access to healthcare, education, and social participation. Redistribution is not just about material resources but also about enabling individuals to convert those resources into meaningful capabilities. For Sen, justice requires correcting structural disadvantages and ensuring conditions for people to lead lives they value.

Comparative Insights:

• Metric of Justice: Rawls uses primary goods; Sen uses capabilities.

• Equality Focus: Rawls seeks fairness in resource distribution; Sen emphasizes freedom to achieve outcomes.

• Redistribution Rationale: Rawls supports redistribution to uphold fairness within institutions; Sen supports it to promote real opportunity and remove unfreedoms.

Conclusion:

While Rawls provides a powerful institutional framework for fairness, Sen adds depth by focusing on individual agency and diversity. Together, they offer complementary visions: Rawls helps structure just institutions; Sen ensures that justice reflects the lived realities of individuals. For effective redistributive justice, both resource equality and real freedom must be considered.

Detailed evaluation & Feedback of your answer :

Here is a detailed evaluation of your answer on Rawlsian Justice vs Amartya Sen’s Capabilities Approach and their implications for redistributive justice, based on standard UPSC answer writing parameters (like clarity, structure, conceptual depth, analytical balance, and word economy):

STRENGTHS

1. Clear Structure and Logical Flow:

   • The answer follows a well-organized format: introduction, individual theories, comparative section, and conclusion.

   • Subheadings enhance clarity and make the answer easier to follow.

2. Conceptual Accuracy:

   • Rawls’ principles are correctly explained (original position, veil of ignorance, primary goods, difference principle).

   • Sen’s approach is also well-articulated — especially the focus on capabilities, functionings, and conversion factors.

3. Effective Use of Examples:

   • The example of two individuals with the same income but differing outcomes is an excellent way to highlight Sen’s critique of Rawls.

4. Balanced Comparative Insights:

   • The “Comparative Insights” section neatly summarizes key differences in metrics, focus, and rationale — a helpful analytical device for evaluators.

5. Strong Conclusion:

   • The synthesis offered in the conclusion — seeing Rawls and Sen as complementary — shows mature understanding and evaluative skill.

AREAS FOR IMPROVEMENT

1. Limited Critical Engagement:

   • The answer does not engage enough with criticisms of either theory. For instance:

     • Rawls has been criticized for being overly idealistic and not addressing global justice.

     • Sen’s approach is vague in operationalizing capabilities — there’s no fixed list or institutional framework.

2. Insufficient Real-world or Policy Examples:

   • The answer could be enriched by contemporary illustrations, such as:

     • India’s welfare schemes (e.g., MGNREGA or Ayushman Bharat) as applications of the capabilities approach.

     • Scandinavian-style taxation models that reflect Rawlsian redistribution.

3. Lack of Mention of Martha Nussbaum (Optional but Helpful):

   • A brief reference to Nussbaum’s refinement of Sen’s approach through a defined list of capabilities would show advanced understanding.

4. Slight Redundancy:

   • Some ideas are repeated — e.g., “freedom to achieve outcomes” vs. “real opportunity” appear in both the Sen and the comparative sections.

EVALUATION (Out of 10)

The post UPSC PSIR (Political Science & International Relations) Test Series for CSE 2025 appeared first on Kushmanda Education.

Here are the questions, options, and answers:

1. Consider the following types of vehicles : I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel Cell electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
3. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt
II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three (Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel are typically used in battery cathodes. Graphite is primarily used in the anode.)
4. Consider the following:
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
5. Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
6. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons
7. Consider the following statements:
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only (Majorana 1 chip is associated with Microsoft, not AWS).
8. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements :
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III
9. Consider the following statements:
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
10. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain
Statement I
11. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement
manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (Statement I is generally considered correct. Statement III explains a crucial chemical process in cement manufacturing that leads to CO2 emissions, thus explaining Statement I. Statement II describes an ingredient but doesn’t directly explain the emissions percentage).

12. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (Statement I is true. Statement II is false as the declaration is non-binding. Statement III could be a potential concern for India, thus explaining why it refrained from signing a *binding* declaration if it were. So, if we assume India’s stance aligns with a potential compromise, then III could explain I.)
13. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain
Statement I
14. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain
Statement I
15. Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the
Pacific’?
(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) (c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
16. With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I and II only
(b) III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (c) I, II and III
17. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) I and III (c) II only (d) II and III

Answer: (d) II and III (Tarantulas are arachnids, not crustaceans, and are carnivorous).
18. Consider the following statements:
I. Carbon dioxide $(CO_{2})$ emissions in India are less than 0.5 t $CO_{2}/$ capita.
II. In terms of $CO_{2}$ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of $CO_{2}$ emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) II and III only (India’s per capita CO2 emissions are significantly higher than 0.5 t
CO2/capita).
19. Consider the following pairs:
Sl.No. Plant Description

I. Cassava Woody shrub

II. Ginger Herb with pseudostem

III. Malabar spinach Herbaceous climber

IV. Mint Annual shrub

V. Papaya Woody shrub
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only two
(b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five

Answer: (c) Only four (Mint is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub).
20. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements: I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photo synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in
atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (b) II only (Oceans, primarily through phytoplankton, produce a majority of Earth’s oxygen, more than rainforests. Well-oxygenated water has dissolved oxygen, but atmospheric air has a much higher concentration of oxygen by percentage).
21. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy :
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle
of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both 1 and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II
22. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three (The Non-Cooperation Programme called for the *renunciation* of titles and honors, not their retention).

23. The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was
(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
24. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara?
(a) Mahendravarman I (b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I (d) Simhavarman

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I
25. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
(a) Samudragupta (b) Chandragupta II (c) Kumaragupta I (d) Skandagupta

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II
26. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta) (b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola)
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala) Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)
27. With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region | River flowing in the region

I. Asmaka | Godavari
II. Kamboja | Vipas
III. Avanti | Mahanadi
IV. Kosala | Sarayu
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two (Asmaka and Kosala are correctly matched. Kamboja was in the northwest, not on Vipas. Avanti was around Ujjain, not on Mahanadi).

28. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu
Digambar Paluskar in
(a) Delhi
(b) Gwalior (c) Ujjain (d) Lahore

Answer: (d) Lahore
29. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and Yukta’ were important
officers at the
(a) village-level administration (b) district-level administration (c) provincial administration
(d) level of the central administration
Answer: (b) district-level administration
30. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II
31. With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two (Hedge Funds and Venture Capital are typically classified as Alternative
Investment Funds. Bonds and Stocks are traditional investment instruments).
32. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV (c) I, III, IV and V (d) I, II and V

Answer: (d) I, II and V (RBI’s income primarily comes from open market operations (buying/selling bonds), foreign exchange operations, and seigniorage (printing currency). It does not engage in pension fund management or lending to private companies in the typical sense of commercial banks).

33. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization | Some of its functions | It works under
|—
I. Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Intelligence | Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two (The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. The other two rows are correctly matched).
34. Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business
Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only (The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not RBI, mandates
BRSR for listed companies).
35. Consider the following statements :
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement
I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct (Income from allied agricultural activities is generally taxable, though there can be specific exemptions or
treatments. Rural agricultural land is indeed not considered a capital asset under the Income-tax
Act, 1961, which is a fact independent of taxability of allied activities income).
36. Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and
Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only (India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership. While India has identified 30 critical minerals, it is not resource-rich in *all* of them. The 2023 amendment to the MMDR Act is correct).

37. Consider the following statements :
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a
company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain
Statement I
38. Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only (SEBI is the regulatory body that warns investors and takes action against unregistered financial advisors, making statement III incorrect).

39. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain
Statement I
40. Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only (Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt, and it increases government income, not creates a liability).
41. Consider the following countries:
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization? (a) Only three
(b) Only four (c) Only five (d) All the six

Answer: (b) Only four (Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia are NATO members. Austria and Serbia are not).

42. Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries? (a) Only two
(b) Only three (c) Only four (d) Only five

Answer: (d) Only five (The Andes mountain range passes through Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina. Brazil and Paraguay are not traversed by the Andes).

43. Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon
Through how many of them does the equator pass? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one (The Equator passes through Lake Tanganyika).
44. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III
45. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only
Answer: (c) I, II and III
46. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement
I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct (Subtropical and temperate areas often have more dry winds, leading to more dust, contradicting Statement II).
47. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement
I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains
Statement I
48. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (Chalk is porous, explaining its permeability. While clay is impermeable, Statement III that it’s “not at all porous” is incorrect; clay has porosity, but its pores are extremely small and poorly connected, leading to low permeability).

49. Consider the following statements:
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the
Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only
Answer: (c) I, II and III
50. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II
51. Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III (Intermediate level Panchayats do not exist in all states, especially
those with small populations. The minimum age to be a member of a Panchayat is 21 years, not
30. The State Finance Commission, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the commission to review the financial position of Panchayats).

52. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of
BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I only
Answer: (c) I and IV (BIMSTEC was formed with the Bangkok Declaration in 1997, not Dhaka Declaration 1999. Nepal and Bhutan joined later, so they are not founding members. It has seven members, and India leads the tourism sector).

53. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi
Peace Prize?
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) II and IV only
(b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I and III only

Answer: (c) II, III and IV (The jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize includes the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India, and the Leader of the single largest Opposition Party in the Lok Sabha. The President of India is not a member).

54. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) I and II only
Answer: (d) I and II only (GAGAN provides benefits beyond aviation, including for railways, surveying, agriculture, etc., making statement III incorrect).

55. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable Al.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only (As of current knowledge, while the Paris summit may build on previous AI safety summits, specific details about India co-chairing and US/UK signing a particular declaration in February 2025 are not fully confirmed or widely known at the time of my last update).

56. Consider the following pairs:
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer | 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism | 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust | 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence | 2029
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two (I and II are correct. The International Year of Peace and Trust was 2021, and the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence is proposed/discussed but not officially declared for 2029 by the UN as a specific year).

57. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS;
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global
Development and Security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II
(b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I only

Answer: (c) I and III (Indonesia has not become a full member of BRICS).
58. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the
Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on
the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) III only
(b) II and III (c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (a) III only (Lokpal’s jurisdiction extends to public servants within and outside India. The Chairperson can be a former Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge. Lokpal can inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister with certain safeguards).

59. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup : I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) II and III only (The first Kho Kho World Cup was not held in Delhi; it was held in various cities, with the final often elsewhere).

60. Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only (D. Gukesh did not defeat Ian Nepomniachtchi in the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad. He won the Candidates Tournament, which made him eligible to play for the World Championship, not the Olympiad. Abhimanyu Mishra holds the record for the youngest Grandmaster).
61. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement
I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains
Statement I
62. Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready’ railway system by 2028.
II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are not correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only (The National Rail Plan aims for a ‘future ready’ railway system by
2030, not 2028. ‘Kavach’ is an indigenously developed system, not in collaboration with
Germany. Statement III is correct).
63. Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micso gravity research?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
64. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:
Sl.No. Aircraft type Description

I. Dornier-228 Maritime patrol aircraft

II. IL-76 Supersonic combat aircraft

III. C-17 Globemaster III Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two (IL-76 is a heavy military transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft).

65. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide (b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide (c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate (d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
66. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India : I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only (The President exercises the pardoning power on the advice of the Central
Government, making statement II incorrect).
67. Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the
People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party Immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then) Members of The House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only (There is no constitutional provision requiring the Speaker to resign from their political party upon election, making statement II incorrect).

68. Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II (The decision on disqualification under the 10th Schedule is made by the presiding officer (Speaker/Chairman), not the President, although it is subject to judicial review. While the term “political party” might not be explicitly defined in the *text* of the main articles, it is very much mentioned and referred to in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution).

69. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement
I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct (State Governments do have the power to make rules regarding minor minerals. The Central Government has the power to notify which minerals are considered ‘minor’).

70. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer: (a) The European Union
71. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only
* Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts = 80,000 – 60,000 = ₹20,000 crores (Statement I is correct).
* Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts other than borrowings. In this context, borrowings of ₹10,000 crores represent the fiscal deficit. So, Statement II is correct.
* Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = 10,000 – 6,000 = ₹4,000 crores
(Statement III is correct).
Therefore, I, II and III are correct. My apologies for the previous calculation error. The answer should be (d).

Corrected Answer: (d) I, II and III
72. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor
(INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
73. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United
States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement
I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct (The United States is generally the largest producer of ethanol, producing more than Brazil. Statement II accurately describes the primary feedstocks in each country).

74. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed $35^{\circ}C$. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only (High wet-bulb temperatures directly impact the body’s ability to cool itself through sweating, which is critical for survival. While climate change can lead to other extreme weather events, the direct and most severe implication of *wet-bulb temperatures* exceeding the threshold is related to human survivability).

75. A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through
non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
(a) ₹48,500 crores
(b) ₹51,500 crores
(c) ₹58,500 crores
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) ₹48,500 crores
* Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments
* Gross Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 crores – ₹1,500 crores = ₹48,500 crores. (Non-debt creating capital receipts are already accounted for in the calculation of fiscal deficit).

76. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance
Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV

Answer: (c) I, III and IV (The 15th Finance Commission recommended a share of 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes to be distributed among states, not 45%, making statement II incorrect).

77. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) :
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only (IBRD is part of the World Bank Group and works with various partners, not single-handedly, to reduce poverty).

78. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for
NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) I and II (c) I and III (d) III only

Answer: (c) I and III (For NEFT, neither inward nor outward transactions are typically charged
to the customer directly, making statement II incorrect. While RTGS was previously restricted on certain days, both RTGS and NEFT now operate 24×7. However, historically, RTGS had more restricted hours than NEFT, and for exam purposes, the distinction of “restricted on certain
days” might still be considered relative to NEFT’s historical 24×7 push). Given the options, I and III are the most plausible correct pair reflecting a typical understanding of the systems’ characteristics.

79. Consider the following countries: I. France
II. United Arab Emirates
III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
(a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five

Answer: (c) Only four (As of recent developments, France, UAE, Singapore, and Sri Lanka have integrated or are integrating UPI for merchant payments. Bangladesh and Germany’s full-scale international merchant UPI acceptance is still developing or not as widespread).

80. Consider the following statements about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
81. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only (An Ordinance cannot abridge a Fundamental Right, as it has the same force as an Act of Parliament but is subject to judicial review and constitutional limitations).

82. Consider the following pairs:
Sl.No. State Description

I.
Arunachal Pradesh The capital is named after a fort, and the
State has two National Parks
II.

Nagaland The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III.

Tripura Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the
status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one (Arunachal Pradesh’s capital, Itanagar, is not named after a fort.
Nagaland became a state by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, not a Constitutional Amendment
Act. Tripura’s journey from Part ‘C’ to UT in 1956 and then full statehood in 1972 is correct).
83. With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one (The Inter-State Council is established under Article 263 of the Constitution. The National Security Council and Zonal Councils are statutory bodies, established by Acts of Parliament, not directly by the Constitution).

84. Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only (The President can only consider a bill reserved by the Governor, not directly reserve it without the Governor’s action).

85. Consider the following pairs:
Provision in the Constitution of India | Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State | The Directive
Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture | The Fundamental
Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories | The
Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
86. With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled
Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II (The State Government does not lose its executive power; rather, the administration of Scheduled Areas falls under its purview with special provisions. The Union Government has supervisory powers and can issue directions, but it does not “take over total administration” on the Governor’s recommendation in the manner implied).

87. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Sl.No. Organization Union Ministry

I. The National Automotive Board Ministry of Commerce and Industry

II. The Coir Board Ministry of Heavy Industries

III. The National Centre for Trade
Information
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None (The National Automotive Board is under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. The Coir Board is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. The National Centre for Trade Information is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry).

88. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III (All these subjects relate to the federal structure of the Indian Constitution, and amendments to such provisions require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures under Article 368).

89. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only
(b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III
90. Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulator
Board in our country? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two (The PNGRB regulates the refining, storage, distribution, marketing, and sale of petroleum products and natural gas. The upstream activities of crude oil and natural gas
*production* are generally under the purview of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas).
91. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
(a) the Champaran Satyagraha
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement
Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
92. The famous female figurine known as Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze
(d) gold
Answer: (c) bronze
93. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah
Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant (Madan Mohan Malaviya notably defended the accused in the Chauri Chaura case).

94. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (a) The Poona Pact
95. Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
96. Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil
How many of the above-countries have more than four time zones? (a) All the five
(b) Only four (c) Only three (d) Only two

Answer: (c) Only three (France has many time zones due to overseas territories, more than four. The United States also has more than four. Among the given options, Australia, Brazil, and Denmark have more than four time zones considering their overseas territories. The UK has multiple time zones including its territories).

97. Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II (These two locations are on opposite sides of the International Date
Line, hence the difference in days).
98. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’? (a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav (d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: (a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
99. Consider the following pairs:
Sl.No. Country Resource-rich in

I. Botswana Diamond II. Chile Lithium III. Indonesia Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
100. Consider the following pairs:
Sl.No. Region Country

I. Mallorca Italy

II. Normandy Spain

III. Sardinia France
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None (Mallorca is in Spain, Normandy is in France, and Sardinia is in Italy).

The expected cutoff marks for UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper-1 for the General Merit (GM) category will be around 100. Considering the difficulty level of the CSAT paper, it may go slightly lower, possibly to around 80. These predictions are based on feedback received from students, faculty members, and mentors, as well as our own analysis and understanding of exam trends. These predictions can help you evaluate your performance and decide your next steps strategically.

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The HPSC Interview, as the final stage of HPSC , has the potential to either make or break your HPSC dream. So, a thorough preparation for this final lap is crucial. Mock Interviews are the key to perfecting your skills and transforming yourself from puzzled to polished for the big day.

Variety of Mocks

As the composition of your actual HPSC Interview Board remains unknown to you, it’s always advisable that you appear for mock interviews before a variety of interview boards. It helps you get an exposure to different types of questioning patterns and hence develop an adaptability. IGP takes care of this requirement by organising two types of Mock Interviews:

• Faculty Mocks: Conducted by the Kushmanda experts, they are aimed to give detailed feedback on every single aspect of the interview. Along with, they also provide on-the-spot resolution of even the minutest doubts of the candidates.
• HPSC Simulator Mocks: Conducted by former bureaucrats and subject experts, they are aimed to give you an experience of the actual HPSC Interview-like ambience. This ensures that you remain unfazed by the pressure on the big day.

Experience of the Interview Panellists

The foremost criteria to categorise any HPSC Mock Interview Programme as the best one is the experience of the panel members who conduct the mock interviews. HPSC Mock Interviews fares the best in this term because of composition of its interview panel.

Dedicated Sessions on DAF

Since the DAF is something which is filled in by the candidate oneself, one is expected to furnish a well-balanced response to questions arising based on the information therein. Thus, comprehensively preparing one’s DAF is mandatory to ace the HPSC Interview. Various features of  IGP address this requirement in the best possible manner:

• DAF Filling Sessions: The candidates are guided by the  experts in order to help them fill in the right information.
• Customised DAF Question Generator: The information furnished in the DAF, and hence expected DAF-based questions, are different for each candidate. As part of its Mock Interview Programme, Kushmanda provides Customised DAF Question Generator to provide each candidate a curated list of student-specific questions. The questions so curated are as per the questioning patterns of last 5 years’ HPSC interviews.
• One-to-One DAF Sessions: As the final step towards comprehensively preparing one’s DAF, the interview experts conduct one-to-one DAF sessions with each candidate. These sessions are aimed to help candidates prepare a well-balanced response to their DAF-based specific questions.

Dedicated Personalised Support

As described by the HPSC, the HPSC Interview is the test of one’s personality. Needless to say, everyone’s personality being different, one needs dedicated personalised support to ace the HPSC Interview. Mock Interview Programme addresses this requirement with its following features:

• One-to-One Session with Experts: When it comes to HPSC Interview preparation, nothing can beat a one-to-one session with a person who has been a part of the actual HPSC Interview Panels. In a personalised one-to-one session, we guide the candidates on how to answer interview questions so as to make a lasting impression on the HPSC Interview Board.
• Personal Interview Coach: Though desirable for every stage of the HPSC , the need for a Personal Coach is felt the most for HPSC Interview preparation. Continuous support and guidance provided by the Personal Interview Coaches at Kushmanda ensure that specific preparation needs of each candidate are properly addressed.

Good Logistics Facility

It is of vital importance that a HPSC Mock Interview Programme provides the necessary logistics facility so as to enhance the realism. Following logistics feature of the IGP Mock Interviews make significant contribution in making them the best Mock Interviews for HPSC Interview preparation:

• Formal Interview Room:  IGP Mock Interviews are conducted in a formal interview room. The room is equipped with all the modern devices and its ambience is so maintained that you get a feel of being present in the actual HPSC Interview room.
• Video Recording Facility: The Mock Interview of each candidate is recorded with state-of-the-art video recording equipment. These videos are then provided to the respective candidates so that they can themselves see their mock interviews and make necessary improvements.

Additional Resources

Though Mock Interviews make a significant portion, a comprehensive preparation for HPSC Interview requires many other resources. Thus, apart from providing the best Mock Interviews, Interview Guidance Programme (IGP) provides many other resources and features, such as:

• Dedicated Sessions: Dedicated Sessions conducted as part of this programme aim to comprehensively cover areas which are typically relevant for the interview, such as – Current Affairs, Home States, Optional Subjects etc.
• Interview Oriented Study Materials: Candidates are provided specially curated interview guide books as well as other reference study materials on areas such as – Home State, Hobbies, Graduation Subject etc.

Track Record of Success 

Its proven track record of producing results in the earlier years stands testimony to the fact that the IGP Mock Interviews fares among the best in the category. Various elements of the Interview Guidance Programme (IGP) and Mock Interviews conducted under this programme possess every element that needs to be categorised as the best Mock Interview Programme for HPSC.

All the best for your HPSC Interview!

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